"Our earthly liturgies must be celebrations full of beauty and power: Feasts of the Father who created us—that is why the gifts of the earth play such a great part: the bread, the wine, oil and light, incense, sacred music, and splendid colors. Feasts of the Son who redeemed us—that is why we rejoice in our liberation, breathe deeply in listening to the Word, and are strengthened in eating the Eucharistic Gifts. Feasts of the Holy Spirit who lives in us—that is why there is a wealth of consolation, knowledge, courage, strength, and blessing that flows from these sacred assemblies." unknown source possibly YOUCAT Mal.1.11 For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same my name shall be great among the Gentiles; and in every place incense shall be offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name shall be great among the heathen, saith theLord of hosts.

Saturday, March 29, 2014

Was Christ damned on the Cross?

An interesting article on this is found here  http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2010/04/catholic-and-reformed-conceptions-of-the-atonement/

from comment 18

Let me add something as a point of clarification and qualification. To be damned is to be without hope, and without charity. It is to know that one is eternally separated from God, with no hope, not even the possibility of there being hope. That is utter despair. To be damned is to hate God, and to hate His justice. To be damned is to hate oneself with never-ending hatred that knows itself to be never-ending. But Christ endured the cross for the joy set before Him; He always retained hope and charity. He did not despair (that would have been a mortal sin). Nor did He hate God. Thus He never hated Himself. Nor did He ever lose sanctifying grace; otherwise His human will would have been against His divine will. So, for these reasons, if we say that He experienced what it is like to be damned, we must include some very important qualifications. He experienced the external loss of divine protection, and the interior loss of spiritual consolation. The damned also experience that, so in those two respects Christ experienced what it is like to be damned. But Christ didn’t experience the despair, self-loathing, hatred for God and deprivation of grace that the damned experience. So in those respects Christ didn’t experience what it is like to be damned.

see also this link where Thomas Aquinus' s view of Christ descending into hell in the creed is explained: http://nannykim-catholicconsiderations.blogspot.com/2013/05/christ-descended-into-hell-meaning.html

from comment 26 on the first link above:


 All three of the [synoptic] Gospel writers refer to the darkness that fell over the whole land from the sixth hour (i.e. noon) until the ninth hour (i.e. 3 pm). (Cf. Matthew 27:45, Mark 15:33, and Luke 23:44.) But so far as I know, none of the Church Fathers interpret this as an indication that God the Father ‘turned His back’ on the Son. This was a sign to those who had called “crucify him, crucify him,” just as darkness was one of the plagues of Egypt before the Passover, a sign that they were opposing God, and that they should repent. This was creation groaning over what was being done to its Creator.
As for the meaning of Christ’s cry “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?” we should not understand that as meaning that the Son (in His divine nature) was cut off from the Trinity or separated from the perfect happiness of the divine life. But in His human nature He experienced what it is like to be handed over to His enemies and to suffer and die. In those respects He was forsaken. Likewise, in His human nature he experienced the absence of spiritual consolation, and in that respect too He was forsaken, even though He (in His human nature) did not cease to behold the Father. He spoke these words as man, that is, according to His human nature. But the Father never ceased to love Him, nor did the Father’s love for the Son ever diminish in the least. Everything the Son experienced on the cross, He Himself willed to experience, including these ways of being forsaken in His human nature. I recommend listening to the talk at this link.

also Newman's discourse on the death of Christ is helpful:[there is more at the link http://www.newmanreader.org/works/discourses/discourse16.html :

Our Lord said, when His agony was commencing, "My soul is sorrowful unto death"; now you may ask, my brethren, whether He had not certain consolations peculiar to Himself, impossible in any other, which diminished or impeded the distress of His soul, and caused Him to feel, not more, but less than an ordinary man. For instance, He had a sense of innocence which no other sufferer could have; even His persecutors, even the false apostle who betrayed Him, the judge who sentenced Him, and the soldiers who conducted the execution, testified His innocence. "I have condemned the innocent blood," said Judas; "I am clear from the blood of this just Person," said Pilate; "Truly this was a just Man," cried the centurion. And if even they, sinners, bore witness to His sinlessness, how much more did His own soul! And we know well that even in our own case, sinners as we are, on the consciousness of innocence or of guilt mainly turns our power of enduring opposition and calumny; how much more, you will say, in the case of our Lord, did the sense of inward sanctity compensate for the suffering and annihilate the shame! Again, you may say that He knew that His sufferings would be short, and that their issue would be joyful, whereas uncertainty of the future is the keenest element of human distress; but He could not have anxiety, for He was not in suspense; nor despondency or despair, for He never was deserted. {333} And in confirmation you may refer to St. Paul, who expressly tells us that, "for the joy set before Him," our Lord "despised the shame". And certainly there is a marvellous calm and self-possession in all He does: consider His warning to the Apostles, "Watch and pray, lest ye enter into temptation; the spirit indeed is willing, but the flesh is weak"; or His words to Judas, "Friend, wherefore art thou come?" and, "Judas, betrayest thou the Son of Man with a kiss?" or to Peter, "All that take the sword shall perish with the sword"; or to the man who struck Him, "If I have spoken evil, bear witness of the evil; but if well, why smitest thou Me?" or to His Mother, "Woman, behold thy Son".
All this is true and much to be insisted on; but it quite agrees with, or rather illustrates, what I have been observing. My brethren, you have only said (to use a human phrase) that He was always Himself. His mind was its own centre, and was never in the slightest degree thrown off its heavenly and most perfect balance. What He suffered, He suffered because He put Himself under suffering, and that deliberately and calmly. As He said to the leper, "I will, be thou clean"; and to the paralytic, "Thy sins be forgiven thee"; and to the centurion, "I will come and heal him"; and of Lazarus, "I go to wake him out of sleep"; so He said, "Now I will begin to suffer," and He did begin. His composure is but the proof how entirely He governed His own mind. He drew back, at the proper moment, the bolts and fastenings, and opened the gates, and the floods fell right {334} upon His soul in all their fulness. That is what St. Mark tells us of Him; and he is said to have written his Gospels from the very mouth of St. Peter, who was one of three witnesses present at the time. "They came," he says, "to the place which is called Gethsemani; and He saith to His disciples, Sit you here while I pray. And He taketh with Him Peter and James and John, and He began to be frightened and to be very heavy." You see how deliberately He acts; He comes to a certain spot; and then, giving the word of command, and withdrawing the support of the God-head from His soul, distress, terror, and dejection at once rush in upon it. Thus He walks forth into a mental agony with as definite an action as if it were some bodily torture, the fire or the wheel.
This being the case, you will see at once, my brethren, that it is nothing to the purpose to say that He would be supported under His trial by the consciousness of innocence and the anticipation of triumph; for His trial consisted in the withdrawal, as of other causes of consolation, so of that very consciousness and anticipation. The same act of the will which admitted the influence upon His soul of any distress at all, admitted all distresses at once. It was not the contest between antagonist impulses and views, coming from without, but the operation of an inward resolution. As men of self-command can turn from one thought to another at their will, so much more did He deliberately deny Himself the comfort, and satiate Himself with the woe. In that moment His soul thought not of the future, He thought only of the {335} present burden which was upon Him, and which He had come upon earth to sustain.

from comment 157 here  http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2010/04/catholic-and-reformed-conceptions-of-the-atonement/
 what St. Thomas is speaking of when he writes of the interior suffering (suffering in soul) of Christ for the sins of the whole human race. According to St. Thomas, because Christ in His Passion retains the beatific vision, He sees each sin ever committed and to be committed, and sees perfectly the way it wrongs God by failing to give Him the love, obedience, honor and glory that is due to God. Hence St. Thomas says in Summa Theologica III Q.46 a.6, when he writes:
The cause of the interior pain was, first of all, all the sins of the human race, for which He made satisfaction by suffering; hence He ascribes them, so to speak, to Himself, saying (Psalm 21:2): “The words of my sins.”
According to St. Thomas, the interior pain was not one of His conscience tormenting Him for wrongdoing, since He had never sinned. Nor was the Father angry with Him, and pouring out an angry tirade within Christ’s soul for our sins, while Christ ‘took it like a man.’ Rather, Christ was sorrowed, grieving in His soul over our sins. In Catholic language, as our High Priest He was making an act of contrition for all our sins, in solidarity with us. His solidarity with us, in His heart grieving over our sins and their offense against God, this was the source of His internal suffering. This is the way He ‘stood in the gap,’ not by receiving a stream of wrath from the Father, but by making the perfect act of contrition to the Father on our behalf as both intercessor (High Priest), and victim (i.e. sacrifice).

Friday, March 28, 2014

Peter / councils

Interesting comment here at 115 http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2014/03/the-quest-for-the-historical-church-a-protestant-assessment/#comment-79299

I would like to challenge your assessment of the canonical evidence. Especially as it pertains to the book of Acts. It seems that you would like to use Acts 15 as evidence of the early Church operating under the same governing principles as today’s confessional reformed. you cite that 1. James made the decision 2. The decision of the council was not presented as James’ but as a group decision and 3. the council consisted of a plurality of presbyters and elders. I want to first show that the Council itself is a perfect example of the RC conception of conciliar infallibility and then also refute the idea that it was James and not Peter presiding over the council.
Acts 15:28-29: “For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: that you abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols and from blood and from what is strangled and from unchastity.”
Do reformed protestants today cite the Holy Spirit when delivering decisions reached by a plurality of elders and presbyters? If so, how is it that the PCA can justify its schism from the PCUSA? I have heard people say before that this council was governed by apostles and so inspired in a way that future councils could not be but this response seems to simplistic in that it assumes the truth of reformed views on cessationism a priori. Scripture is our model for everything, including Church government, and all parties appeal to it for their own views (including yourself in this very post). If Scripture teaches that a council of the Church is authoritative and binding, then it is implausible and unreasonable to assert that no future council can be so simply because it is not conducted by apostles. In the next chapter, we read that Paul, Timothy, and Silas were traveling around “through the cities,” and
“. . . they delivered to them for observance the decisions which had been reached
by the apostles and elders who were at Jerusalem.” (Acts 16:4)
This is Church authority. They simply proclaimed the decree as true and binding — with the sanction of the Holy Spirit Himself! This would seem to insinuate infallibility and a irrevocable decision not up for further discussion or dissent. No one was at liberty to disobey these decrees on the grounds of “conscience,” or to declare by “private judgment” that they were in error (per Luther). Far from being evidence for reformed church government I think that we have a prime example of RC (or at least EO) infallible conciliar authority.
Scripture wasn’t written in a vacuum and when one considers the way the ECFs considered future Councils (as infallible and protected by the Holy Spirit) this line of reasoning is only strengthened. Eminent reformed historian Phillip Schaff writes that
The authority of these [ecumenical] councils in the decision of all points of controversy was supreme and final.
Their doctrinal decisions were early invested with infallibility; the promises of the Lord respecting the indestructibleness of his church, his own perpetual presence with the ministry, and the guidance of the Spirit of truth, being applied in the full sense to those councils, as representing the whole church. After the example of the apostolic council, the usual formula for a decree was: Visum est Sprirtui Sancto et nobis. Constantine the Great, in a circular letter to the churches, styles the decrees of the Nicene council a divine command; a phrase, however, in reference to which the abuse of the word divine, in the language of the Byzantine despots, must not be forgotten. Athanasius says, with reference to the doctrine of the divinity of Christ: “What God has spoken by the council of Nice, abides forever.” The council of Chalcedon pronounced the decrees of the Nicene fathers unalterable statutes, since God himself had spoken through them. The council of Ephesus, in the sentence of deposition against Nestorius, uses the formula: “The Lord Jesus Christ, whom he has blasphemed, determines through this most holy council.” Pope Leo speaks of an “irretractabilis consensus” of the council of Chalcedon upon the doctrine of the person of Christ. Pope Gregory the Great even placed the first four councils, which refuted and destroyed respectively the heresies and impieties of Arius, Macedonius, Nestorius, and Eutyches, on a level with the four canonical Gospels. In like manner Justinian puts the dogmas of the first four councils on the same footing with the Holy Scriptures, and their canons by the side of laws of the realm.
(History of the Christian Church, Vol. III: Nicene and Post-Nicene Christianity: A.D. 311-600, Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans Publishing Company, 1974, from the revised fifth edition of 1910, 340-342; available online: see this particular portion online: § 65. The Synodical System. The Ecumenical Councils)
Thus, Tradition stands firmly on the side of the Roman Catholic Church’s view of Acts 15 and its perpetuity as an example for future councils than that of the reformed and their conception of fallible councils and majority opinion.
I would also object to James as “being the one who made the decision”. Carl Olsen supplies evidence that it was actually Peter who presided over the Council of Jerusalem when he writes…
As for Acts 15, a number of factors point to Peter actually being both the leader at the council and the leader of the early Church. First, there is the manner in which his speech begins and ends. By standing up to speak after the debate had subsided, Peter made an emphatic physical gesture affirming his authority and centrality. The silence afterwards indicated the finality of what Peter had just said; no one disputes either his speech or his right to make it. In fact, the witness of Paul and Barnabas, along with James’s speech, only reinforce and agree with what Peter says.
Secondly, few non-Catholic commentators seem to notice the striking wording Peter used in his speech. If he was only a witness, wouldn’t he have appealed only to his experience? But while Peter did focus on his experience, the main object of his speech was God: “God made a choice among you, that by my mouth . . .”; “And God . . . bore witness to them, giving them the Holy Spirit”; “He made no distinction”; and “why therefore do you put God to the test?” (vs. 7-10). It is readily apparent that Peter was quite comfortable in being a spokesman for God. Even James seems to take this for granted by stating, “Simeon has related how God first concerned himself . . .” (v. 14). There is an immediacy to Peter’s relating of God’s work which is noticeably absent from James’s speech.
As mentioned, Paul, Barnabas, and James all reinforced and agreed with Peter’s declaration, albeit in different ways. The first two related “the signs and wonders God” had been working “among the Gentiles” (v. 12). James pointed first to the words of Peter and then to the Prophets (vs. 14-15). Those who claim James’s speech was the definitive one point to the language in verse 19 (“Therefore it is my judgement . . .”) as evidence for James’s primacy. Yet James is simply suggesting a way of implementing what Peter had already definitively expressed. “Peter speaks as the head and spokesman of the apostolic Church,” state Scott Hahn and Curtis Mitch in the Ignatius Catholic Study Bible, “He formulates a doctrinal judgment about the means of salvation, whereas James takes the floor after him to suggest a pastoral plan for inculturating the gospel in mixed communities where Jewish and Gentile believers live side by side (15:13-21)”
He then follows this up with 10 other scriptural evidences of Petrine primacy including…
1. Peter’s name occurs first in all lists of apostles (Mt 10:2, Mk 3:16, Lk 6:14, Acts 1:13), except Galatians 2. Matthew even calls him the “first” (10:2).
2. Peter alone receives a new name, Rock, solemnly conferred (Jn 1:42, Mt 16:18).
3. Peter is regarded by Jesus as the Chief Shepherd after himself (Jn 21:15-17), singularly by name, and over the universal Church, even though others have a similar but subordinate role (Acts 20:28, 1 Pt 5:2).
4. Peter alone among the apostles is mentioned by name as having been prayed for by Jesus Christ in order that his “faith may not fail” (Lk 22:32).
5. Peter alone among the apostles is exhorted by Jesus to “strengthen your brethren” (Lk 22:32).
6. Peter first confesses Christ’s divinity (Mt 16:16).
7. Peter alone is told that he has received divine knowledge by a special revelation (Mt 16:17).
8. Peter is regarded by the Jews (Acts 4:1-13) as the leader and spokesman of Christianity.
9. Peter is regarded by the common people in the same way (Acts 2:37-41; 5:15).
In Acts, Peter gave the sermon at Pentecost (Acts 1:14-36), led the replacing of Judas (1:22), worked the first miracle of the Church age (3:6-12), and condemned Ananias and Sapphira (5:2-11). His mere shadow worked miracles (5:15); he was the first person after Christ to raise the dead (9:40), and he took the gospel to the Gentiles (Acts 10). Peter’s name appears at least 54 times in Acts; James appears a total of four times.
When one weighs these evidences against Peter “referring to himself as a fellow elder” there doesn’t seem to be much of a controversy. In summary then I find that Acts 15 if used as an example for Church government is a fatal blow to the reformed conception of conciliar fallibility and sola scriptura. Tradition also sides with the RC view of Acts 15 and the idea that the Holy Spirits protection and authoritative stamp would be with all christian councils in perpetuity and not just confined to the pages of the book of Acts. I defy the idea that James presided over the Council of Jerusalem and that Peters self reference as a “fellow presbyter” undoes the mountain of scriptural evidence we have for petrine primacy and the role of binding and loosing given to Peter when he alone obtained the Keys to the Kingdom.

Wednesday, March 26, 2014

exegesis and eisegesis what does this prove?

from comment 69 here  http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2014/03/the-quest-for-the-historical-church-a-protestant-assessment/

You complain that Catholic interpretations of the text exclude any exegesis which you believe contradicts Catholic dogma. You then accuse the Catholic side of just being involved with ‘eisegesis’ to prop up Catholic dogma.
However, Reformed theologians have their exegesis which interprets things in a Reformed way. Meanwhile, there exists an abundance of exegesis that contradicts Reformed exegesis in every imaginable way. Yet, Reformed Churches don’t turn around and change their dogmas to conform to the varying exegesis at every turn. But this is what you are asking the Catholic Church to do. You want the Catholic Church to conform to exegesis that you agree with but we could just as easily complain that the Reformed Churches exclude exegesis that contradicts Reformed exegesis and so Reformed exegesis is really just ‘eisegesis’ used to support Reformed dogma.
If we all did what you are asking, we’d be Universalist Unitarians in two weeks’ time.
How do we get past this? Putting aside the option of becoming Unitarians we are left with two options.
1) We go on throwing each other’s exegesis at each other in a question begging manner like you do with 1 Tim 3:15
2) We find a way to address the differences in interpretation in a non-question begging way.
Option # 2 is what Called to Communion is all about. To that end, we have been putting forth the argument that the only non-question begging way to address the mountains of differing exegesis is to locate the Church that Christ founded by finding the successors to the apostles. Once we find the successors to the apostles, we approach that Church and conform our understanding to the exegesis and dogmas that the apostolic Church preaches.
In summary, our approach is exactly the approach that Irenaues used and other early fathers used when fighting against the Gnostics. Their answer to the Gnostic exegesis was not to embrace the Gnostic exegesis but to say, “No, we are the Church that Christ founded. We are the Church of the apostles. We have the succession of the apostles and the Church says that Gnosticism is false…”
There are many such examples. Here is one:
“But if there be any (heresies) which are bold enough to plant themselves in the midst Of the apostolic age, that they may thereby seem to have been handed down by the apostles, because they existed in the time of the apostles, we can say: Let them produce the original records of their churches; let them unfold the roll of their bishops, running down in due succession from the beginning in such a manner that [that first bishop of theirs] bishop shall be able to show for his ordainer and predecessor some one of the apostles or of apostolic men,–a man, moreover, who continued steadfast with the apostles. …To this test, therefore will they be submitted for proof by those churches, who, although they derive not their founder from apostles or apostolic men (as being of much later date, for they are in fact being founded daily), yet, since they agree in the same faith, they are accounted as not less apostolic because they are akin in doctrine…Then let all the heresies, when challenged to these two tests by our apostolic church, offer their proof of how they deem themselves to be apostolic… Tertullian, Prescription against the Heretics, 33 (A.D. 200).
(Of course the debates with the Gnostics went further/deeper than that but this is why the early Church looked to her succession in the first place. )

Thursday, March 6, 2014

communion of the saints




also this article herehttp://www.calledtocommunion.com/2014/02/do-the-saints-pray-for-us-a-response-to-perry-sukstorf-and-marcia-fleischman/   discusses Do the saints pray for us? from comment 71

You wrote:
“I would adopt that thesis IF I had some objective basis to support the proposition that the departed saints could hear our requests.”
One basis for this proposition is the image of departed saints reflected in Revelation 5:8 – They are depicted as actively offering up the prayers of those on earth. The act of offering anything requires the conscious intention to do so. Thus, the Biblical data demands that the saints in heaven are conscious of our prayers, at least in a general way, and associate themselves with them by intention.
The biblical data also support the idea that a saint’s mediation may be possible whether or not the saint is directly conscious of our petition. In the 2 Kings passage referenced above, we find an instance of a miraculous relic. Originally, this was the principle way in which the Church sought the mediation of saints – through contact with their relics. The Blessed Virgin Mary is an exception, obviously, since she left no first class relics. The “sub tuum” prayer (from 2nd or 3rd century Alexandria) is thus an important witness that these two kinds of petition existed side by side in antiquity.
Finally, the question of devotion to the saints cannot be separated from the liturgical and devotional history of the Church. To say, “I will only practice devotions that I find completely and overtly represented in Scripture” is to adopt an attitude towards Christian worship that would have made Christian worship impossible prior to the formation of the canon. This is why the fathers of the 2nd century took the belief and practice of apostolic churches to be the norm – rather than appeal to an inchoate and yet unfinalized New Testament. So, as a Catholic, I would also add that we know the saints hear our prayers because the practice of the earliest Christians (which is normative) presumes it, and because the Church teaches that they hear our prayers.
On a related note, have you considered how the Protestant “regulative principle of worship,” if strictly applied, would in fact destroy certain mainstays of Protestant worship? For instance, Scripture nowhere represents baptism performed during a Eucharistic assembly or Sunday liturgy. Should we therefore not baptize on Sundays or in Church? Likewise, Scripture nowhere shows us explicitly that communion was ever administered to women. Should we therefore withhold communion from women?
Inevitably, therefore, the question of devotion to the saints is connected to another question: How do we know what is or is not a binding norm for Christian worship?

from comment 72:


From antiquity to the Reformation, such devotion was the universal practice of the Church. It remains the practice of those Christian groups that can actually trace their history to antiquity.
The only systematic opposition to such devotion arose in only one corner of the Christian world (western europe), and very late (16th century). To reject such devotion is to take a stance at odds with what was, prior to that rejection, the universal witness of the Christian faithful.
from the same link comment 74
I don’t know if it’ll be a helpful observation or not, but my own reasoning (as I was in the process of “reading my way into the Church”) went as follows:
1. The early Christians asked the saints in heaven for their intercession;
2. They did this prior to the finalization of the New Testament canon, and in a widespread way;
3. The Jews did this in a less-formalized way prior to the time of Christ (and still do today; e.g. prayers at Rachel’s tomb, which is indirectly referenced in the New Testament itself: “a voice heard in Ramah”), so that it seems to be a continuation of the ongoing practice of the People of God, rather than a reversal or interruption;
4. The persons involved in the finalization of the New Testament canon (Athanasius and Damasus and Augustine and other bishops of the late 4th century) clearly practiced asking the intercession of the saints;
5. The persons involved in the finalization of the New Testament canon relied on their understanding of the Apostolic Tradition and the history and practices of the Church from the apostolic age onward in doing so;
6. IF their understanding of the Apostolic Tradition and the history and practices of the Church was wrong to hold that saints’ intercession as an orthodox and ancient practice, THEN this suggests significant error in their understanding of the Apostolic Tradition and the history and practices of the Church.
7. BUT, if their understanding of the Apostolic Tradition and the history and practices of the Church was badly mistaken, then that undermines our ability to trust the New Testament canon they’ve handed on to us, which we accept at least partly on their testimony.
8. IN WHICH CASE, it would be hard to argue that, either from Apostolic Tradition OR from the Bible, it is possible to know what orthodox Christian doctrine and practice actually IS. This view leads to theological “liberalism” and makes Christian orthodoxy an unknown thing, lost in the mists of time.
9. ON THE OTHER HAND, if the understanding of Church practice and of Apostolic Tradition of the canonizers of the New Testament is solid and reliable (even if it isn’t infallible), then we can have great confidence that we have the “right” New Testament.
10. BUT IN THAT CASE, any suggestion that asking the saints’ intercession is forbidden by New Testament Christianity is dubious, for these men, whose understanding of Church practice and Apostolic Tradition is sufficiently reliable to give us the canon, also asked the saints’ intercession. (And saw no contradiction between that practice and the New Testament canon.)
11. IN EITHER CASE, in proportion to the degree we mistrust the orthodoxy of those through whom we receive the New Testament canon, the reliability of that canon is reduced.
In the above, I’m not making an argument from absolutes, like a geometric proof.
But I’m asking whether something passes the “smell test,” in an abstract kind of way.
I don’t think it passes the “smell test” to say: “Yeah, without the testimony of the ancient Christians, we’d have no certain and uniform New Testament; but we’re going to use the New Testament and our own 21st-century, culturally-post-Christian interpretation of it, to disregard their testimony.”
Having reasoned that far, I ask myself: What does it *mean* if asking saints for their intercession is orthodox Christian practice?
Well, it means I grew up in a branch of Christianity which had lost some of the ancient practice (Southern Baptists). But that’s neither a big deal, nor much surprise: As many variations as there are, it stands to reason that most of them have messed up something; if I assume from the outset that my own hasn’t, it’s more likely because of inertia and bias on my own part, than because I’ve exhaustively analyzed every issue.
But what does it mean, if it’s NOT orthodox?
Well, my argument pretty much suggests the answer to that question. If the early Christian witness is in error here or there but not in the main; we can still get by. But if everybody everywhere is messing up something badly, while being oblivious to it? It makes it hard to argue that anyone then could be sure what “Christianity” really was supposed to be. (Let alone now.) It pushes me towards a “Christianity” which is anything I want it to be, probably influenced largely by tropes from Hollywood movies (like the “Druidism” of those poor folk who gather around Stonehenge once a year with fantasy-movie daggers and vaguely Greek-looking robes). It means any modern version of Christianity is more of a “reconstruction” than a “continuation.”
And if THAT is our modern situation, then I must ask about the Holy Spirit what Elijah asked about Baal atop Mount Carmel: What has He been *doing* all this time? Was He taking a nap for several hundred years? Was He away on a journey? What about this “leading us into all truth” promise?
I wonder sometimes, if the reason that the Jesus Seminar liberals and folks like Shelby Spong lost their faith wasn’t by this kind of process: They didn’t want to accept that the Early Church was *right*; but barring that, there was no way to know what “right” was. So they drifted into sentimentalism and skepticism and apostasy.
I don’t want to go that way.
So — even though it’s foreign to my upbringing and initially felt weird — I now ask my brothers and sisters in glory for their prayers on behalf of me and my family and others.
My doing so is wrapped up in my trust of Christ and the Holy Spirit not to abandon us for many centuries.
This line of reasoning helps me. If it does not help you, disregard it of course! And I do not argue that it is mathematically certain. But I can’t bring myself to bet against it.
from comment 88

But, speaking purely speculatively, how do you know that the saints have to hear our prayers in order to consciously associate themselves with them? The passage in Revelation depicts saints consciously and intentionally offering the prayers of Christians on earth. It leaves unstated whether this intentional offering involves a conscious knowledge of each petition, or only a general knowledge. The passage in 2 Kings also suggests that saints don’t need conscious awareness in order for their mediation to be efficacious. What Holy Scripture does teach, without question, is that the relics of saints (Elisha, Peter) have been used by God to effect miracles in the lives of the faithful and that the saints in heaven intentionally associate themselves with our prayers. How do you know that detailed knowledge of our petitions would be necessary for their intercession? Why couldn’t the saints say, “God, please hear the prayers of all who seek my intercession.”

from comment 89


Your Q: Where does it say that departed Saints have full knowledge….?
My Answer: I don’t know of any verse that says specifically that the Saints have full knowledge of what happens here (maybe because there was no cause to), but I know of places where the bible implies this. We may not have full knowledge now, but we will not remain like this but be transformed when we meet the Lord. 1 John 3:2 says that when the Lord appears, we shall be like him for we shall see him as he is. This to me shows that there is a transforming experience when we go to heaven. We shall be heavenly beings.
As to whether they are like Angels in other regards apart from not marrying, I believe so. Luke 20:36 says that “they cannot die because they are like Angels”. So this is a second characteristics in which we are like Angels when in heaven, and don’t you think there could be others? Lets for a minute consider the Angels. They do most of the things that we would ordinarily attribute to God alone, but only THROUGH God. Perhaps our Lord didn’t talk about the resurrected brethren being able to hear us because that was not the issue at hand, and not because they cannot.
I will like you to consider Rev 5:8 where those in heaven are offering the prayers of the holy ones to God. How else will they offer these prayers if they they don’t have knowledge of them. Now, if you like lets not say hear, but sense or know, or anything that means they, through the power of God just like the Angels, have knowledge of our prayers. Our Lord makes one strong point. In Mark 12:24 he chides the Jewish leaders for knowing neither the scriptures nor the power of God. The power of God can make those who are born of the resurrection hear us in a way different from that of any saint here on earth. The Psalmist in Psalm 148 seems to agree, for he addresses the Hosts of heaven to praise God.
There is this anti catholic preacher, Matt Slick who has an interesting take on Rev 5:8 that you might want to consider. He believes that the Saints in heaven can hear us, but that praying to them is a sin.http://carm.org/praying-saints-biblical. Very interesting, but am not saying you should believe they can hear us because this man does though. But it points to the confusion that can arise when we o against an established christian tradition.
Lets now look at christian tradition:
Clement of Alexandria
“In this way is he [the true Christian] always pure for prayer. He also prays in the society of angels, as being already of angelic rank, and he is never out of their holy keeping; and though he pray alone, he has the choir of the saints standing with him [in prayer]” (Miscellanies 7:12 [A.D. 208]).
Origen
“But not the high priest [Christ] alone prays for those who pray sincerely, but also the angels . . . as also the souls of the saints who have already fallen asleep” (Prayer 11 [A.D. 233]).
Cyprian of Carthage
“Let us remember one another in concord and unanimity. Let us on both sides [of death] always pray for one another. Let us relieve burdens and afflictions by mutual love, that if one of us, by the swiftness of divine condescension, shall go hence first, our love may continue in the presence of the Lord, and our prayers for our brethren and sisters not cease in the presence of the Father’s mercy” (Letters 56[60]:5 [A.D. 253]).
Anonymous
“Atticus, sleep in peace, secure in your safety, and pray anxiously for our sins” (funerary inscription near St. Sabina’s in Rome [A.D. 300]).
“Pray for your parents, Matronata Matrona. She lived one year, fifty-two days” (ibid.).
“Mother of God, [listen to] my petitions; do not disregard us in adversity, but rescue us from danger” (Rylands Papyrus 3 [A.D. 350]).
“Therefore, we pray [ask] you, the most excellent among women, who glories in the confidence of your maternal honors, that you would unceasingly keep us in remembrance. O holy Mother of God, remember us, I say, who make our boast in you, and who in august hymns celebrate the memory, which will ever live, and never fade away” (ibid.).
“And you also, O honored and venerable Simeon, you earliest host of our holy religion, and teacher of the resurrection of the faithful, do be our patron and advocate with that Savior God, whom you were deemed worthy to receive into your arms. We, together with you, sing our praises to Christ, who has the power of life and death, saying, ‘You are the true Light, proceeding from the true Light; the true God, begotten of the true God’” (ibid.).
Cyril of Jerusalem
“Then [during the Eucharistic prayer] we make mention also of those who have already fallen asleep: first, the patriarchs, prophets, apostles, and martyrs, that through their prayers and supplications God would receive our petition . . . ” (Catechetical Lectures 23:9 [A.D. 350]).

Hilary of Poitiers
“To those who wish to stand [in God’s grace], neither the guardianship of saints nor the defenses of angels are wanting” (Commentary on the Psalms 124:5:6 [A.D. 365]).

from comment 101

But what about praying for their intercession before they’re canonized? If we don’t know they’re in heaven, why would we be justified in praying to them? (Perhaps they’re in purgatory, or even in hell if they committed a mortal sin prior to death). I don’t see how it’s okay to pray to saints before they’re canonized.
I think you are right to show hesitance in praying to those who might not be in heaven or on their way to heaven. Church tradition has been divided on the question, and to my knowledge there has been no definitive Church teaching on the subject. In favor of souls in purgatory praying for us include St. Alphonsus Liguori:
They are unable to pray or merit anything for themselves, yet, when they pray for others, they are heard by God.
and St. John Vianney:
If one knew what we may obtain from God by the intercession of the Poor Souls, they would not be so much abandoned. Let us pray a great deal for them; they will pray for us.
Alternatively, St. Thomas Aquinas in the Summa writes,
Those who are in Purgatory though they are above us on account of their impeccability, yet they are below us as to the pains which they suffer: and in this respect they are not in a condition to pray, but rather in a condition that requires us to pray for them.
However, St. Robert Bellarmine did not find St. Thomas persuasive on the subject, and argues that in virtue of their greater love of God and their union with Him, their prayers may have great intercessory power, for they are really superior to us in love of God, and in intimacy of union with Him (De Purgatorio, lib. II, xv). I tend to agree with Bellarmine, as I don’t understand why their pain would create a condition where they are unable to pray for us. I would add that those in purgatory are closer to God than we are, since they are already on their way to Beatific Vision, and as they are in the process of being cleansed, would seem to qualify as the “righteous men” described in James 5:16 as being able to offer prayers “powerful and effective.” Furthermore, to ask for their prayers would be to exercise the virtue of hope that those who died exhibiting faith are on their way to God. Not to say that we have access to the mind of God regarding whether any specific person is in heaven – but we can certainly exercise the virtue of hope, especially when we have good evidence and reason for such hope. in 
comment 160 from http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2014/02/do-the-saints-pray-for-us-a-response-to-perry-sukstorf-and-marcia-fleischman/http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2014/02/do-the-saints-pray-for-us-a-response-to-perry-sukstorf-and-marcia-fleischman/


 1. We know from Scripture (even limited to the reduced Protestant canon) that because of “the power of God” those in Christ who have “fallen asleep” are to be understood as “the living” not “the dead”;

 2. We know from Scripture (even limited to the reduced Protestant canon) that we are surrounded by a “great cloud of witnesses” (and it follows that they could not be “witnesses,” nor could they cheer for us as we “run the race,” if they were clueless about events in our lives;

 3. We know from Scripture (even limited to the reduced Protestant canon) that there is much rejoicing in Heaven when a sinner repents…and it is reasonable to assume that this rejoicing is not merely from the angels, inasmuch as it would be strange for the angels to suddenly start rejoicing only for the oblivious saints to ask, “Hey, what’s going on? What’s the celebration for?” and the angels to refuse to answer;

 4. We know from Scripture (even limited to the reduced Protestant canon) that Christians are bidden to pray for one another;

 5. We know from Scripture (even limited to the reduced Protestant canon) that Christians are allowed to request prayer from each other;

 6. We know from Scripture (even limited to the reduced Protestant canon) that “the prayer of a righteous man availeth much”; 

 7. We know from Scripture (even limited to the reduced Protestant canon) no imperfect or sinful thing is in Heaven, and consequently that all Heaven’s inhabitants are very, very righteous indeed; 

 8. We know therefore that the saints in Heaven are already interceding for us to some degree, inasmuch as they are alive and righteous and aware of our difficulties, and are therefore not disobeying the injunction to pray for their brothers and sisters, but praying for us and “availing much” by doing so.

 9. The only Scripturally-sound objection to asking saints to intercede for us, therefore, is not over whether we are allowed to ask the saints to pray for us, or whether they hear us, but rather, whether they’re already praying for us as much as they’re ever going to, whether we ask them to do so, or not! (But the same could be said about prayers to God, so this objection really doesn’t get far.) 

 10. More broadly, this whole topic cannot be properly understood without pointing out that the almost the whole theology of Paul revolves around Christ’s revelation to Paul on the Damascus road that Christians are parts of Christ’s body and that when Paul persecuted Christians, he was persecuting Christ. Paul hammers this theme again and again.

 For this reason, it is simply false (if one holds a Scriptural, Pauline ecclesiology) to assert that people who ask the saints for their intercession are neglecting to pray to Christ. The saints are in Christ, like my muscle cells and bones are in me. When the saints on earth did works of grace led by the Holy Spirit, it was Christ working through them. It was no longer they who lived, but Christ who lived in them. When they suffered for His sake, He suffered and thus their suffering, united to His, had real merit. And when the saints ask Our Father to help us, Christ is asking Our Father to help us.
=
 The old joke is that, when someone is not listening to what you are saying to them, they turn their heads away from you, put their palm out in your direction, and say, “Talk to the hand.” Well, those who are in Christ are (in a real-if-mysterious way, not a merely symbolical or analogical way) His hands, and His feet. They are in Christ. When you talk to the saints, you are “talking to the hand” (or the foot, or the eye). But “the hand” is part of Christ. (We are not Gnostics; we do not believe that the body is extraneous or dismissible; we believe rather that the body and soul together are the person.) So when you “talk to the hand” (or the foot, or the eye) you are talking to Christ. When He tells us “talk to the hand” He isn’t ignoring us; He is rather glorifying those whom He loves, for whom He died, by allowing them to have a participation in His own intercessory work. 

 And isn’t that just like Our Father, to set things up that way? He is always doing that: He is always allowing us to participate in our lesser ways in doing things which He could “do better for Himself,” so to speak. Does Jesus need saints praying for His disciples who remain on earth? Of course not. But Our Father’s heart is gladdened not only when His Firstborn Son does His will, but also when Jesus’ adopted little brothers and sisters also join in. Given all of this, one must wonder: What went so badly wrong with the Scriptural exegesis and ecclesiology and Christology of some denominations, that they don’t preach the intercession of the saints?

from comment  173 http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2014/02/do-the-saints-pray-for-us-a-response-to-perry-sukstorf-and-marcia-fleischman/#comments    :

You quote from a footnote and say, "Notice they say nothing about these cloud of witnesses being aware of us." This is like me quoting the Preamble of the Constitution of the United States and noting, "Notice they say nothing about The United States having won independence from the British." One doesn't, in a footnote, have to spell out every obvious implication of a particular passage; nor does a failure to do so prevent that implication from being true.

You then say, "It is true that Scripture tells us to pray for one another. It never tells us to pray to the dead...," but, Pat, John the Baptist and Peter and Paul and Timothy and Silas and Mary are significantly more alive than any earthly person you've ever asked to pray for you...people walking around with bodies that decay with time? With habits that still lead them into sin? Shouldn't I admonish you, Pat, for how you have sometimes asked these near-corpses whom you happen to know to pray for you?

You catch me asking the liveliest folk I know -- people currently enraptured in the Everlasting Divine Life of the Trinity -- for their prayers and accuse me of "praying to the dead!" By that standard, why shouldn't I accuse you of "praying to the dead" catch you asking favors of people who won't even last another two hundred years?

Then you quote Ecclesiastes 9:5-6 and 10; these tell us of the status of those in Sheol; not those in Heaven. (But there is a difference!)

You then draw a conclusion: "This tells us that the dead have nothing more to do with this world." But have you not read Luke 16:19-31? Do you not notice the irony that Jesus named the character in this particular story as "Lazarus?" Do you think Lazarus, having died, had nothing more to do with this world? And doesn't the rich man who died plead -- fruitlessly in this case, but the rich man was not a saint -- for his brothers? If even a sinner in fire pleads for mercy for those on earth, how much more a saint in Heaven? Are the saints in Heaven less compassionate than sinners?

Or consider Matthew 27:51-53: Did the "holy people who had died" make any impression on the people of Jerusalem? And I have already alluded to Luke 15; are the angels the sole occupants of Heaven, the only ones who celebrate when a sinner repents? And what about at the general resurrection? Will those who have died say, "Nope, sorry; we've died; we can't get involved in any events on earth ever again?" What about the souls of the martyrs in Revelation 6? Don't they plead with God to avenge the blood of the martyrs? (Not, I think, an uninvolved attitude.)

Or, to return to the passage in Hebrews: The "cloud of witnesses": Are they not the saints in glory? (I say, "in glory" because, standing in the divine presence, that is precisely where they are, in the shekinah; hence, a "cloud" of witnesses.) And are they not in this passage depicted as spectators in a stadium, observing an athletic competition? What do such spectators do? Do they not cheer for the competitors, and thereby encourage them? They are not on the field, but one would never say that they were uninvolved.

You add, "The temporary exceptions were Samuel, Moses and Elijah. After these incidents we don’t find anyone praying to them." But Jews from time immemorial prayed at Rachel's tomb asking her to intercede with God on their behalf (often in maternal matters). And Christians continued this tradition from the start, that Moses is "Saint Moses" and Elijah is "Saint Elijah" in ancient tradition. That it doesn't immediately occur to you or me to murmur, "Hey, Moses, join me in praying that God would help me resist uncontrolled outbursts of anger when I see injustice" means that you and I were not raised as first-century Jews who then became Christians. But the Apostles were.

You state, "There is no reason to pray to the dead for the mere fact that Christ alone is our High Priest Who intercedes for us..." ...which doesn't follow. Christ (not "Christ alone," mind you; how can a person whose very body contains millions of other persons ever be called "alone?!") is certainly our High Priest; but how is that pertinent to the question? Aaron was the High Priest at the time of the Exodus; but that didn't prevent an Israelite from asking another Israelite to pray for them...or even, to take a lamb or some grain to Aaron to ask Aaron to offer a sacrifice on their behalf. Now we have a far better High Priest than Aaron or his sons; but our fellow Israelites can still pray for us.

I think what you're missing here, Pat, is the ecclesiology of the Apostle Paul. Paul/Saul learned it from Jesus when Jesus blinded Saul en route to Damascus saying, "Saul, Saul, why do you persecute Me?" And you know the story: Saul answered, "Not so, Lord; I was just persecuting your followers, which isn't the same thing," and Jesus answered, "Oh, nevermind then."

Kidding!

No, it didn't go quite that way, did it? Jesus revealed to Saul that when you persecute a Christian, you are persecuting an organ in the body of Christ -- His hands, or His feet, or His eye. They are "in Christ": Notice that, despite the doctrine of the Eucharist, the Pauline Epistles say that we are "in Christ" about ten times more often than they say Christ is "in us." Jesus' words to Saul on the Damascus road were an epiphany; Paul constantly reiterates our membership -- not like people signing up for an organization, but like cells in an organism -- in the body of Christ. It's not mere analogy; it's metaphysical and miraculous reality.

And that's why the priestly ministry of Christ's ordained clergy is just a sharing in the priestly ministry of Jesus Christ. The mission of forgiving men's sins is shared by Jesus with His Apostles and their successors: "Whosoever's sins you forgive...." When the Apostles preached, they also commended those who heeded them for receiving their words not as mere words from men, but "the word of God.": They had a share in the preaching ministry of the Divine Logos Himself.

Thus, when a saint (whether he is in Heaven already, or on earth) intercedes for a fellow Christian, is he praying "apart from Christ?" Of course not! (How is that even possible? "It is God Himself who works within you....")

No, the saint who intercedes is "in Christ" and thus participates in Christ's intercessory ministry. Does Christ need any help? Of course not! But love is not like that; love does not say, "I can do this myself, so go away and don't join in with me." Love says, "I am doing this; how happy it makes me that you also want to do it with me!" God starts beaming with pride when the saints intercede.

Or, to put it another way: God is a good Father. He is pleased by the obedience of His firstborn Son, naturally. But He has also adopted many other sons and daughters, and is pleased when these adopted children join His Only Begotten in conducting the family business...which includes intercession for those who need it.

found here below http://www.catholicculture.org/culture/library/view.cfm?recnum=4620#114--Note--you have to scroll to the part above angels

VENERATION OF THE SAINTS AND BEATI
Principles
208. The cult of the Saints, especially of the martyrs, is an ancient ecclesial phenomenon, that is rooted in the Scriptures (cf. Act 7, 54-60; Acts 6, 9-11; 7, 9-17) and the practise of the Church of the first half of the second century265. Both Eastern and Western Churches have always venerated the Saints. The Church has strenuously defended and explicitated the theological basis of this cult, especially since the rise of protestantism and its objections to certain aspects of the traditional veneration of the Saints. The connection between the cult of the Saints and the doctrine of the Church has also been clearly illustrated. The cultic expressions, both liturgical and devotional, of the veneration have always been carefully disciplined by the Church, which has always stressed the exemplary testimony to genuine Christian life given by these illustrious disciples of the Lord.
209. When treating of the Liturgical Year, Sacrosanctum Concilium effectively illustrates this ecclesial reality and the significance of the veneration of the Saints and Beati: "The Church has always included in the annual cycle memorial days of the martyrs and other saints. Raised up to perfection by the manifold grace of God and already in possession of eternal salvation, they sing God's perfect praise in heaven and pray for us. By celebrating their anniversaries, the Church proclaims the achievement of the paschal mystery in the saints who have suffered and who have been glorified with Christ. She proposes them to the faithful as examples who draw all men to the Father through Christ, and through their merits she begs God's favours"266.
210. A correct understanding of the Church's doctrine on the Saints is only possible in the wider context of the articles of faith concerning:
  • the "One, Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church"267, Holy because of the presence in the Church of "Jesus Christ who, with the Father and the Holy Spirit, is proclaimed as the "sole Holy One"268; because of the incessant action of the Spirit of holiness269; and because the Church has been given the necessary means of sanctification. While the Church does have sinners in her midst, she "is endowed already with a sanctity which is real though imperfect"270; she is "the Holy People of God"271, whose members, according to Scripture, are called "Saints" (cf. Acts 9, 13; 1 Cor 6, 1; 16,1).
  • the "communion of Saints"272 through which the Church in heaven, the Church awaiting purification "in the state of Purgatory"273, and the pilgrim Church on earth share "in the same love of God and neighbour"274. Indeed, all who are in Christ and posses his Spirit make up a single Church and are united in him.
  • the doctrine of the sole mediation of Christ (cf. 1 Tim 2, 3), which does not, however, exclude subordinate mediations, which must always be understood in relation to the all embracing mediation of Christ275.
211. The doctrine of the Church and her Liturgy, propose the Saints and Beati who already contemplate in the "clarity of His unity and trinity"276 to the faithful because they are:
  • historical witnesses to the universal vocation to holiness; as eminent fruit of the redemption of Christ, they are a poof and record that God calls his children to the perfection of Christ (cf. Ef 4, 13; Col 1, 28), in all times and among all nations, and from the most varied socio-cultural conditions and states of life;
  • illustrious disciples of Christ and therefore models of evangelical life277; the church recognises the heroicness of their virtues in the canonization process and recommends them as models for the faithful;
  • citizens of the heavenly Jerusalem who ceaselessly sing the glory and mercy of God; the Paschal passage from this world to the Father has already been accomplished in them;
  • intercessors and friends of the faithful who are still on the earthly pilgrimage, because the Saints, already enraptured by the happiness of God, know the needs of their brothers and sisters and accompany them on their pilgrim journey with their prayers and protection;
  • patrons of the Local Churches, of which they were founders (St. Eusebius of Vercelli) or illustrious Pastors (St. Ambrose of Milan); patrons of nations: apostles of their conversion to the Christian faith (St Thomas and St. Bartholomew in India) or expressions of national identity ( St. Patrick in the case of Ireland); of corporations and professions (St. Omobono for tailors); in particular circumstances — in childbirth (St. Anne, St. Raimondo Nonato), in death (St. Joseph) — or to obtain specific graces (St. Lucy for the recovery of eyesight) etc..
In thanksgiving to God the Father, the Church professes all this when she proclaims "You give us an example to follow in the lives of your Saints, assistance by their intercession, and a bond of fraternal love in the communion of grace"278.
212. The ultimate object of veneration of the Saints is the glory of God and the sanctification of man by conforming one's life fully to the divine will and by imitating the virtue of those who were preeminent disciples of the Lord.
Catechesis and other forms of doctrinal instruction should therefore make known to the faithful that: our relationship with the Saints must be seen in the light of the faith and should not obscure the "cultus latriae due to God the Father through Christ in the Holy Spirit, but intensify it"; "true cult of the Saints consists not so much in the multiplication of external acts but in intensification of active charity", which translates into commitment to the Christian life279.

Tuesday, March 4, 2014

lent


There is much to say regarding the early Church practice of Lent, so much so that I cannot include it all in a combox comment. Here are just a few pieces of evidence concerning Lent and the early Church.
The Nicene Creed was formulated at the first ecumenical council at Nicea in AD 325. Among thecanons from that council can be found the following words within the fifth canon:
And let these synods be held, the one before Lent, (that the pure Gift may be offered to God after all bitterness has been put away), and let the second be held about autumn.
According to St. Athanasius who attended the council there were 318 bishops from all over the world present at this council. And they do not say anything about establishing Lent; rather they speak of Lent as a given, as a liturgical reference point in relation to which they plan the time of other events. So the whole Church throughout the world takes Lent as a given, at the time of the first ecumenical council, before even the canon of Scripture had been determined, before the divinity of the Holy Spirit had been defined in the second council, and before one-Person-in-two-natures Christology had been defined in the third and fourth ecumenical councils in the fourth and fifth centuries.
Eusebius, for example, reports that in the late second century there was a difference in practice regarding when to end “the fast.” He writes:
A question of no small importance arose at that time. For the parishes of all Asia, as from an older tradition, held that the fourteenth day of the moon, on which day the Jews were commanded to sacrifice the lamb, should be observed as the feast of the Saviour’s passover. It was therefore necessary to end their fast on that day, whatever day of the week it should happen to be. But it was not the custom of the churches in the rest of the world to end it at this time, as they observed the practice which, from apostolic tradition, has prevailed to the present time, ofterminating the fast on no other day than on that of the resurrection of our Saviour.
Synods and assemblies of bishops were held on this account, and all, with one consent, through mutual correspondence drew up an ecclesiastical decree, that the mystery of the resurrection of the Lord should be celebrated on no other but the Lord’s day, and that we should observe the close of the paschal fast on this day only. There is still extant a writing of those who were then assembled in Palestine, over whom Theophilus, bishop of Cæsarea, and Narcissus, bishop of Jerusalem, presided. And there is also another writing extant of those who were assembled at Rome to consider the same question, which bears the name of Bishop Victor; also of the bishops in Pontus over whom Palmas, as the oldest, presided; and of the parishes in Gaul of which Irenæus was bishop, and of those in Osrhoëne and the cities there; and a personal letter of Bacchylus, bishop of the church at Corinth, and of a great many others, who uttered the same opinion and judgment, and cast the same vote.
And that which has been given above was their unanimous decision. (Church History 5.23, my emphases)
This second century dispute was over which day to end the fast and celebrate Christ’s resurrection. There was also dispute regarding what form the fast should take during the Triduum. What was not under dispute was the practice of fasting prior to celebrating Christ’s resurrection. Rather, as Eusebius implies, in the second half of the century, the practice of fasting prior to Easter was already celebrated in all the churches around the world. And according to Eusebius, St. Irenaeus wrote that even these variations in the form of fasting extended back to his ancestors: “And this variety in its observance has not originated in our time; but long before in that of our ancestors.” (Church History, 5.24) But because St. Irenaeus’s was an auditor (a hearer) and student of St. Polycarp, who was himself an auditor of the Apostle John, the only “ancestors” to which St. Irenaeus can be referring were either “apostolic fathers” or the Apostles themselves.
St. Athanasius, bishop of the Church at Alexandria, wrote the following to his Church in AD 330, just five years after the first ecumenical council:
We begin the fast of forty days on the 13th of the month Phamenoth Mark 9. After we have given ourselves to fasting in continued succession, let us begin the holy Paschal week on the 18th of the month Pharmuthi (April 13). Then resting on the 23rd of the same month Pharmuthi (April 18), and keeping the feast afterwards on the first of the week, on the 24th (April 19), let us add to these the seven weeks of the great Pentecost, wholly rejoicing and exulting in Christ Jesus our Lord, through Whom to the Father be glory and dominion in the Holy Ghost, for ever and ever. Amen. (Letter 2)
In AD 340, in his letter from Rome to Serapion, St. Athanasius wrote:
But I have further deemed it highly necessary and very urgent, to make known to your modesty— for I have written this to each one— that you should proclaim the fast of forty days to the brethren, and persuade them to fast, lest, while all the world is fasting, we who are in Egypt should be derided, as the only people who do not fast, but take our pleasure in these days. For if, on account of the Letter [not] being yet read, we do not fast, we should take away this pretext, and it should be read before the fast of forty days, so that they may not make this an excuse for neglect or fasting. Also, when it is read, they may be able to learn about the fast. But O, my beloved, whether in this way or any other, persuade and teach them to fast the forty days. For it is a disgrace that when all the world does this, those alone who are in Egypt, instead of fasting, should find their pleasure. For even I being grieved because men deride us for this, have been constrained to write to you.
Note that concerning Lent he explains that “all the world does this,” and exhorts the presbyter Serapion to make sure the people fast, and read the letter from him (as bishop) to his parishioners so that they have no excuse for not fasting.
St. Jerome likewise writes:
We, according to the apostolic tradition (in which the whole world is at one with us), fast through one Lent yearly … I do not mean, of course, that it is unlawful to fast at other times through the year — always excepting Pentecost — only that while in Lent it is a duty of obligation, at other seasons it is a matter of choice.” (Letter 41, To Marcella)
Notice both that Lent is observed by “the whole [Christian] world,” according to St. Jerome, and that it is an “apostolic” tradition.
In the fifth century, St. Leo the Great refers to Lent as an apostolic institution, writing, “That the Apostolic institution of forty days might be fulfilled by fasting.” (Serm. ii. v. ix. de Quadragesima) So do St. Cyril of Alexandria and St. Isidore of Seville.
My point
My point here is not at all to lay out all the patristic evidence for the universal observance of Lent. Nor is my point to challenge Duncan’s claims regarding the allegedly bad theology inherent in the observance of Lent with the following dilemma: either the widespread early observance of Lent indicates that the whole Church from a very early time fell into false theology, which thus presupposesecclesial deism, or the whole entire Church at some later point prior to the fifth or sixth century abandoned its original theological basis for observing Lent and adopted another theological basis for observing Lent. The problem with that thesis is that there is no evidence for it. Hence if according to Duncan Lent arose out of a theology of merit that does not fit with Reformed theology, then so much the worse for Reformed theology’s claim to apostolicity and catholicity. But that dilemma is not the point I wish to make.
My point concerns a different dilemma. If there are any practices that can justifiably be said to belong to Tradition, Lent is surely one of them, as even the bit of patristic evidence I’ve provided already makes clear. Hence if even the observance of Lent has no authority, then there is no authoritative Tradition. But in the Protestant/Reformed debate sketched out above regarding whether or not to observe Lent the fundamental question is not whether Lent is authoritative, but whether Lent is biblical and, if ‘biblical,’ then useful. Hence if Lent is part of authoritative Tradition, the nature of the Protestant/Reformed debate regarding whether or not to observe Lent demonstrates precisely the thesis of my post at the top of this page, namely, that sola scriptura entails the non-authoritative character of Tradition, and thus reduces sola scriptura to “solo scriptura” in essence, even when and where some adherents of sola scriptura retain the practice of Lent and practices like Lent. So the dilemma I wish to set forward here is the following: either there is no Tradition, in which case sola scriptura reduces to “solo scriptura,” or Lent is part of that Tradition, in which case the Protestant debate concerning whether to observe Lent demonstrates that sola scriptura nullifies the authority of Tradition, in which case sola scriptura reduces to “solo scriptura.” Either way, sola scriptura reduces to “solo scriptura.”

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and below Scott explains some of the symbolism of the 40 days in OT and Lent http://www.ewtn.com/faith/lent/fast.htm   

http://www.ewtn.com/faith/lent/fast.htm

see also:http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2015/02/trueman-lent-and-reformed-catholicity/

This link above also traces the history of Lent and does some contrasting to the Reformed views.

also the following link explains the ashes on Ashe Wed http://lifeteen.com/why-do-catholics-put-ashes-on-our-heads-on-ash-wednesday/   and http://www.ncregister.com/blog/jimmy-akin/9-things-to-know-and-share-about-ash-wednesday1