"Our earthly liturgies must be celebrations full of beauty and power: Feasts of the Father who created us—that is why the gifts of the earth play such a great part: the bread, the wine, oil and light, incense, sacred music, and splendid colors. Feasts of the Son who redeemed us—that is why we rejoice in our liberation, breathe deeply in listening to the Word, and are strengthened in eating the Eucharistic Gifts. Feasts of the Holy Spirit who lives in us—that is why there is a wealth of consolation, knowledge, courage, strength, and blessing that flows from these sacred assemblies." unknown source possibly YOUCAT Mal.1.11 For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same my name shall be great among the Gentiles; and in every place incense shall be offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name shall be great among the heathen, saith theLord of hosts.

Sunday, September 30, 2012

St. Thomas on relics


the following is quoted from comment 18 found here: http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2010/04/relics/#comment-38267

In his section on the adoration of Christ in His human nature and its implications, St. Thomas treats in his Summa Theologica the following question: “Whether any kind of worship is due to the relics of the saints?” The objections, his response, and his reply to the objections are worth posting in full, and are sufficiently clear that they need no explanation:
Objection 1. It would seem that the relics of the saints are not to be worshiped at all. For we should avoid doing what may be the occasion of error. But to worship the relics of the dead seems to savor of the error of the Gentiles, who gave honor to dead men. Therefore the relics of the saints are not to be honored.
Objection 2. Further, it seems absurd to venerate what is insensible [i.e. unable to sense]. But the relics of the saints are insensible. Therefore it is absurd to venerate them.
Objection 3. Further, a dead body is not of the same species as a living body: consequently it does not seem to be identical with it. Therefore, after a saint’s death, it seems that his body should not be worshiped.
On the contrary, It is written (De Eccles. Dogm. xl): “We believe that the bodies of the saints, above all the relics of the blessed martyrs, as being the members of Christ, should be worshiped in all sincerity”: and further on: “If anyone holds a contrary opinion, he is not accounted a Christian, but a follower of Eunomius and Vigilantius.”
I answer that, As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei i, 13): “If a father’s coat or ring, or anything else of that kind, is so much more cherished by his children, as love for one’s parents is greater, in no way are the bodies themselves to be despised, which are much more intimately and closely united to us than any garment; for they belong to man’s very nature.” It is clear from this that he who has a certain affection for anyone, venerates whatever of his is left after his death, not only his body and the parts thereof, but even external things, such as his clothes, and such like. Now it is manifest that we should show honor to the saints of God, as being members of Christ, the children and friends of God, and our intercessors. Wherefore in memory of them we ought to honor any relics of theirs in a fitting manner: principally their bodies, which were temples, and organs of the Holy Ghost dwelling and operating in them, and are destined to be likened to the body of Christ by the glory of the Resurrection. Hence God Himself fittingly honors such relics by working miracles at their presence.
Reply to Objection 1. This was the argument of Vigilantius, whose words are quoted by Jerome in the book he wrote against him (ch. ii) as follows: “We see something like a pagan rite introduced under pretext of religion; they worship with kisses I know not what tiny heap of dust in a mean vase surrounded with precious linen.” To him Jerome replies (Ep. ad Ripar. cix): “We do not adore, I will not say the relics of the martyrs, but either the sun or the moon or even the angels”–that is to say, with the worship of “latria.” “But we honor the martyrs’ relics, so that thereby we give honor to Him Whose martyrs [The original meaning of the word 'martyr,' i.e. the Greek martys is 'a witness'] they are: we honor the servants, that the honor shown to them may reflect on their Master.” Consequently, by honoring the martyrs’ relics we do not fall into the error of the Gentiles, who gave the worship of “latria” to dead men.
Reply to Objection 2. We worship that insensible body, not for its own sake, but for the sake of the soul, which was once united thereto, and now enjoys God; and for God’s sake, whose ministers the saints were.
Reply to Objection 3. The dead body of a saint is not identical with that which the saint had during life, on account of the difference of form, viz. the soul: but it is the same by identity of matter, which is destined to be reunited to its form. (source)



from an email--YOUCAT

How important is so-called “popular piety”? 
Popular piety, which is expressed in veneration for relics, processions, pilgrimages, and devotions, is an important way in which the faith becomes inculturated. It is good as long as it is in and of the Church, leads to Christ, and does not try to “earn” heaven by works, apart from God’s grace.
Is it permissible to venerate relics? 
The veneration of relics is a natural human need, a way of showing respect and reverence to the persons who are venerated. Relics of saints are properly venerated when the faithful praise God’s work in people who have devoted themselves completely to God. (YOUCAT questions 274-275)

source This text comes from the YOUCAT - an accessible expression of the Catechism of the Catholic Church in a simple Q & A format. [Learn more here]
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ewtn:
https://www.ewtn.com/library/Liturgy/ZLITUR80.HTM  Are their relics in the altars?


nswered by Father Edward McNamara, professor of liturgy at the Regina Apostolorum Pontifical University.

Q: I would like to know the present teaching of the Church, with documentary evidence, on fixing relics of the saints at the altar of Holy Mass.  K.S., Nagapattinam, India

A: The General Instruction of the Roman Missal, No. 302, contains the following statement: "The practice of placing relics of Saints, even those not Martyrs, under the altar to be dedicated is fittingly retained. Care should be taken, however, to ensure the authenticity of such relics."

This statement summarizes the more detailed treatment of this question found in other documents such as the Roman Pontifical, Dedication of a Church and an Altar, and in the Ceremonial of Bishops.

No. 866 of this latter book indicates the basic norms for relics:

"The tradition in the Roman liturgy of placing relics of martyrs or other saints beneath the altar should be preserved, if possible. But the following should be noted:

"a. such relics should be of a size sufficient for them to be recognized as parts of human bodies; hence excessively small relics of one or more saints must not be placed beneath the altar;

"b. the greatest care must be taken to determine whether the relics in question are authentic; it is better for an altar to be dedicated without relics than to have relics of doubtful authenticity placed beneath it;

"c. a reliquary must not be placed upon the altar or set into the table of the altar; it must be placed beneath the table of the altar, as the design of the altar permits."

Other numbers such as 876-877 describe some details as to the vesture and form of the entrance processions and the contents of the copy of the record of the dedication to be placed in the reliquary.

Later, in No. 900, the Ceremonial describes the rite of depositing of the relics:

"If relics of the martyrs or other saints are to be placed beneath the altar, the bishop approaches the altar. A deacon or presbyter brings the relics to the bishop, who places them in a suitably prepared aperture. Meanwhile Psalm 15 (14), with the antiphon 'Saints of God' or 'The bodies of the saints,' or some other suitable song is sung.

"During the singing a stonemason closes the aperture, and the bishop returns to the chair (cathedra)." ZE05050323
* * *
Follow-up: Relics in the Altar [05-17-2005]

Related to the question on relics upon the altar (May 3) a Pennsylvanian reader asks: "The document on Popular Piety states that the relics of the saints (I assume the blessed, too) are not to be exposed on the mensus of the altar. Does this mean that during Mass on the feast day one may not have the relic on the altar at all or is this more specific?"

The question refers to No. 244 of the Directory for Popular Piety.

It states: "The Church blesses sacred images because of their cultic significance. This is especially true of the images of the Saints which are destined for public veneration, when she prays that, guided by a particular Saint, 'we may progress in following the footsteps of Christ, so that the perfect man may be formed in us to the full measure of Christ.' The Church has published norms for the exposition of sacred images in churches and other sacred places which are to be diligently observed. No statue or image is to be exposed on the table of an altar. Neither are the relics of the Saints to be exposed on the table of an altar. It is for the local ordinary to ensure that inappropriate images or those leading to error or superstition, are not exposed for the veneration of the faithful."

This norm is taken from No. 10 of the introduction to the Roman Pontifical's "Order of Dedication of a Church and an Altar."

Although the document specifically refers to a long-term or permanent exposition I believe that its sense and its spirit would also exclude the exposition of a relic during a feast-day Mass. This would also be in conformity with the general norm that only that which is necessary for the Eucharistic celebration should be placed upon the altar during Mass.

This does not mean that the relic could not be exposed in some way during the celebration of a feast. For example, it could be placed on a column close to the ambo or some other prominent place. ZE05051727
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Yet, what is more, the grace of God so fills the souls of the saints that their very bodies become living temples of God, tabernacles of the Holy Spirit. This should come as no surprise, for it was in this body that the soul received grace, especially through the sacraments, ought this same body not to become the temple of the Holy Spirit through the grace bestowed upon the soul?
Consider the body of the Angel of the Schools: It was in that body that Thomas was baptized, confirmed and received communion. It was in that body that he won the angelic virtue of purity. In that body he prayed and fasted. In that body he was forgiven his sins. In that body he was consecrated as a priest of God. In that body he studied and labored. And in that body he was strengthened for the particular judgment with the sacrament of the sick. Ought not this body to participate in some measure in the grace bestowed upon this angelic soul through a body so angelic?
Yes, it must be so! Surely, the bodies of the saints which were so well subjected to the dictates of the soul must truly be temples of the Spirit who dwelt in their soul. The bodies of the great saints were themselves consecrated to God, dedicated to his service, and thus are rightly called temples of the Almighty.
It is for this very reason that the church venerates the remains of these bodies as holy relics.

Friday, September 28, 2012

authority and why choose the Catholic church?


You are coming up against the common problem encountered when the authority argument is pressed to its last frontier. Namely, given that the fallible individual must ultimately be the one to make the authority choice, it would seem that whatever authority is embraced will necessarily be tainted with the corruption of the choice-maker’s fallibility. The solution to this dilemma is to recognize the role and necessity of supernatural faith at this juncture. Imagine that you are transported back to first century Palestine, and are standing before Jesus of Nazareth who has been performing miracles and teaching as if he speaks with the authority of God. He confronts you with a question “who do you say that I am?” What are the dynamics here? You have before you three factors:
1.) An apparently flesh and blood man claiming to speak with the authority of God
2.) Some amazing verifiable historical activities which are said to support this claim
3.) Yourself – a fallible human being who is being asked to answer the question
1.) Notice that without ,1 there is no pressing decision that you need to make, because there would be no one claiming to speak with divine authority. If Jesus were to claim only to speak with common, human, fallible authority; you would have no reason to pay more attention to his interpretation of the Law and the Prophets than your own since he sports no claim to formal temple academic training. Even if he had such training, without his explicit (and shocking) claim to divine authority, he would only present another educated opinion, and surely there will be equally educated opinions which disagree with his exposition. The long and short of it is that, without 1, there is simply no DIVINE (as opposed to fallible) access to the content of revelation worth paying much attention to. There is only fallible theological opinion. If you are going – even in theory – to have non-fallible access to a divine revelation; at the very minimum, you at least need something or someone making a claim to speak with divine (that is non-fallible) authority. Hence, the surprise of the people (and the anger of his religious opponents) who recognize that; “he teaches as one with authority”, and NOT as the Scribes and Pharisees.
2.) If you have 1, but not 2, then you have nothing but a raw, unsubstantiated authority claim. Anyone can make such a claim, Jim Jones to David Koresh. Sure, one could go ahead and embrace such an authority claim (and unfortunately many have throughout history); but it is unreasonable to do so. On the other hand, notice – and this is crucial – that the miracles that Jesus of Nazareth performs, even if you encounter him risen from the dead; do not PROVE that he speaks with divine authority. That a lame man walks, or a blind man sees, or a man known to be dead rises from the grave, are surely extraordinary events; but they do not necessitate the conclusion that the one who effects such events speaks for God. What such events do is lend credence to the antecedent or consequent authority claim of Jesus of Nazareth. So, you have an authority claim from Jesus of Nazareth (“I speak for God) and a set of events which Jesus (or his followers) put forward as evidence that his claim is true. YOU are invited to connect the two in an act of faith – a reasonable act of faith – because it is clearly reasonable (but not necessary) to believe that the events do, in fact, verify the authority claim being made. Still, you must BELIEVE or make an “assent of faith” – you do not get the luxury of a proof. Besides, if you think real hard about it; what would it really take to constitute an absolute “proof” of a supernatural authority claim?.
3.) Now in light of the above, consider 3. You are NOT being asked in this scenario to go figure out theology or the de fide content of revelation. You are being asked to accept the authority claim of Jesus of Nazareth who claims to speak the divine truth. You are being given the two things necessary to put you in a position to make this life altering decision; namely the divine authority claim itself, and a set of evidence given in support of that claim. Still, you are not being given incontrovertible evidence, only probable evidence. If it were otherwise your salvation would not be based on any faith or trust at all. If his claim were supported by undeniable proofs, you would be forced – intellectually – to accept those claims. What does Jesus ask of you? He asks for your faith. He does not ask for an irrational, fideistic faith; since he provides evidences (motives of credibility) for his claim. Still, all the evidence in front of you might admit of an alternate interpretation. Many of Jesus contemporaries, who have experienced everything as you have, WILL reject the evidence as supportive of the claim. Nothing forces your intellect to make the connection between the events and the claim. Still, he asks if you will be a believer or an unbeliever. If you make an act of faith (in reality you will do so with the assistance of divine grace); then you embrace WHATSOEVER Jesus tells you. He will hand on to you the de fide content of divine revelation – you will not need to construct it whole-cloth. If you refuse to believe, you turn your back on the only possible, non-fallible, access to the content of divine revelation on the market since most do not make an divine authority claim (the temple academics) and those that do (such as an occasional Jewish zealot), offer no motives of credibility which might lend any credence to their claim. You must either go away empty handed so far as any hope of “getting at” divine revelation is concerned, or else embrace Jesus because he “has the words of eternal life”.
Fast forward to 2010
1.) The Catholic Church claims t be the extension of the flesh and blood body of Christ across space and time; continuing to speak with divine authority. No Protestant denomination or non-denomination (that I know of) even attempts to make this claim. Hence, from the start you are explicitly limited, within Protestantism, to fallible interpretations of the Old and New Testaments (compare to Law and the Prophets). The very best you might hope for is a highly educated, probabilistic interpretation of the same (akin temple academics of Jesus day). But alas, even these theologians will hold different educated opinions, will they not? Thus in principle, you can never hope to have a divinely authoritative teaching – given the Protestant theological framework. The Catholic Church should her claims be true (just like Jesus of Nazareth should his claims be true) could, in principle, provide a non-fallible access to the de fide content of divine revelation. Hence the surprise of the people (and the anger of her religious opponents) who recognize that she teaches as “one with authority” and not like the modern biblical scholars and theologians.
2.) But are the Catholic Church’s claims true? Again there are evidences, but they are not demonstrative. There is a large body of evidence which the Church puts forward in support of her unique claims. For instance, there is the fact of continuous, documented, ecclesial succession via ordination across the centuries. Does this fact prove that there was a divine charism of Christ’s teaching authority transferred at each ordination? No, but without this historical fact; the Catholic claim would be entirely unsupportable. With this historical fact, the claim is plausible. The Catholic Church, with the pope at her head, has survived external assault and internal corruption for 2000 years. Her dogmatic teachings are internally consistent – at least they CAN be construed in a consistent way; as, in fact, the Church construes them. She has been full of saints and sinners, revolution and reform, miracles and malice. 2000 years after being launched upon the waters of history by her founder; she remains, in 2010, spread out across the globe claiming to offer a perfect sacrifice from East to West. Most strikingly and confrontationally; like Jesus of Nazareth, she remains a stumbling block because she continues to stand among the human race boldly claiming to speak with the authority of God. I am reminded of the bishop (I think he was a bishop) held captive by Napoleon. When Napoleon informed him that he intended to destroy the Catholic Church; the bishop replied something along the lines: “what makes you think you will succeed where so many bishops have failed”? So – does the history, the expansion, the longevity, the consistency, the production of saints, the herculean acts of charity, the staying power in the face of external and internal conflict PROVE that the Catholic Church was founded by Christ as his body in space in time and endowed with His divine authority? No it does not. It is it unreasonable to accept her authority claim given these facts? No it is not. So where does that leave one? In the same position one would have been in the first century when faced with the extraordinary claims and acts of Jesus of Nazareth.
3.) You are faced with a question: “who do you say the Church is”? If you answer “the heir and body of Christ – speaking with the mind of Christ”; you have made an act of faith (by the assistance of grace). She will hand on to you the de fide content of revelation – you will not need to construct it whole-cloth. If you refuse to believe, you turn your back on the only possible non-fallible access to the content of divine revelation on the market because most do not make a divine authority claim (Protestantism); and those that do (such as David Koresh) offer no motives of credibility which might lend any credence to their claim. You must go away empty handed so far as any hope of “getting at” divine revelation is concerned; or else embrace the Church, since she “has the words of eternal life”.
So, my bottom line is this. If you have carefully followed the authority argument all the way through the “tu quoque” objection; and pushed up against the problem of your own individual fallibility with reference to the choice one must make with regard to authority; then you have come to the cliff’s edge of human reason. You have two choices. You must, either turn back and accept the pragmatic fact of doctrinal relativism with the consequence that knowledge of human destiny is hopelessly shrouded in theological opinion; or else you must step out onto the bridge that is the Catholic Faith. I do not say make a “leap of faith”, but rather a step; for there are very good reasons to believe that the bridge will support you. Still, if you wish to transcend the world of theological subjectivity and reach the homeland of orthodoxy; you must take the step and cast yourself upon the Catholic Church as countless others have done before you. It seems to me that this situation has not changed since the days that Christ walked the earth.
The only theoretical way out of this problem, on Protestant principles, is to embrace Calvin’s initial theory that the Holy Spirit immediately, and existentially, confirms BOTH the divine authorship of the Protestant canon AND the divine interpretation of the same – for each and every believer individually. But if you have come to see the obvious theological anarchy which visibly undermines this early Calvin assertion; then you will inevitably come to accept Keith Mathison’s dictum that: “All appeals to Scripture are appeals to interpretations of Scripture.” From there, the authority argument works its way, inexorably, to the frontier between reason and faith in the way I have just described.
Along these lines, you may find this short essay on “Faith and Private Judgment” by Cardinal John Henry Newman very helpful:
Pax et Bonum,
Ray


also quote below is  at  comment 72 here http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2013/01/holy-church-finding-jesus-as-a-reverted-catholic-a-testimonial-response-to-chris-castaldo/#comment-47012

''Even when I didn’t consider myself Catholic, the question of the precise relationship between such realities as forgiveness, justification, repentance, and regeneration, while important, always struck me as secondary to the primary question: What is the Church Christ founded, and how is she to be recognized as such?
The Protestant answer struck me soon enough as getting the matter backwards. Thus one first determines by exegeting Scripture, and perhaps using other source material from the early Church, what “the Gospel” is, then one defines ‘the Church’ as the collection of people who accept it and at least attempt to live by it. But that assumes that divine revelation can be properly identified and interpreted without recourse to ecclesial authority. So it’s up to the individual, using whatever spiritual and scholarly resources he can muster, to determine what Christian orthodoxy is, and on that basis pick a church he finds orthodox. I have never understood how that is supposed to avoid reducing religion to a matter of opinion. It renders the assent of faith, as distinct from that of opinion, impossible. By so doing, it lands the believer in fideism, rationalism, or some ad hoc combination of the two.
Casey Chalk is right to have concluded his post as he did. One must first determine which visible church, if any, was founded by Christ and still teaches with his authority. If one rejects that question, or decides it has no clear answer, then the Christian religion becomes for oneself simply a matter of opinion. And such “faith” is no faith at all.''

how choose a church?
 That Church that Christ founded did not cease to exist between the first century and the sixteenth. Nowhere, in those sixteen centuries, did the Church ever say anything equivalent to or entailing that the Church is the group of persons “that best conforms to Scripture.” Every heretical group on the planet, during those sixteen centuries, would have been delighted if the Church had ever made such a claim, because they could have then justified their own existence by claiming that they were the ones who best conformed to Scripture, and thus that they were the Church. The ‘apostolicity’ of the Church was always understood by that Church of the first sixteen centuries as requiring a succession of authority from the Apostles, not merely a claim to have the doctrine of the Apostles (since any heretical group could make such a claim).
The Church Christ founded, and which existed continually during those sixteen centuries, never said anything like the Church is the group of persons that “that best conforms to Scripture” or that ‘apostolicity’ reduces to agreement with the Apostles’ doctrine. That fourth mark of the Church (i.e. apostolicity) was always understood as essentially successional, that the doctrine of the Apostles was always to be found with those having the succession from the Apostles. She always said what Tertullian said at the end of the second century:
“Our appeal [in debating with the heretics], therefore, must not be made to the Scriptures; nor must controversy be admitted on points in which victory will either be impossible, or uncertain, or not certain enough. For a resort to the Scriptures would but result in placing both parties on equal footing, whereas the natural order of procedure requires one question to be asked first, which is the only one now that should be discussed: “With whom lies that very faith to which the Scriptures belong? From what and through whom, and when, and to whom, has been handed down that rule by which men become Christians? (Liber de praescriptione haereticorum, 19)
Who has the right and authority to say what Scripture means? Those from whom it was handed down, i.e. the Apostles, and the successors of the Apostles, and the particular Churches governed by the successors of the Apostles. The Scriptures belong to the Church, and are rightly known in and through the Church, not through the private interpretation of every Joe Blow who thinks he knows better than the Church what the Scriptures mean.
from comment  93  here

But which is more difficult to believe, and which is a better answer: that the authority of the Church was non-existent for 1500 years (and that the whole Church got it wrong about its authority), or as the early Church believed and universally practiced throughout the whole world wherever Christianity went, that the Apostles handed down their authority to successors as testified to repeatedly by the early Church Fathers?
— bryan cross here at comment 93

No, I think we can be sure that in Christ’s system of adjudicating disputes in Matthew 18, a dispute between two local church pastors can be appealed to the next higher authority, and the next, and end ultimately with a final arbiter where “the buck stops.” That way, there’s One Church we can “take it to.”
(Otherwise, the verse would have read, “Take it to your local church; and if you can’t get agreement there, leave that church and join another with doctrines more to your liking.”)
Another reason we can be sure of this is because Matthew 18 clearly presupposes that the decisions being made in these judgments will sometimes include binding decisions about doctrine, and these binding decisions will somehow be made infallibly correctly: What is bound on earth is bound in Heaven (and Heaven never makes incorrect bindings, nor does Heaven disagree with itself).
Imagine a situation where two Christian women attend two local churches. One is contemplating having an abortion. The other exhorts her not to do it; but the first woman says she thinks it isn’t wrong. The second woman brings another woman or two along to talk to her a second time; still, she doesn’t budge. So, the second woman is now supposed to “bring the matter to the Church.”
We can clearly envision a situation in which the first woman’s local church pastor and elders agree with her that the unborn are not people and that abortion is not a sin, but the second woman’s local church pastor and elders hold that the unborn are people and that abortion is murder. What then would be the outcome, if Matthew 18 were discussing only the local church? “The Church” (understood purely in a Congregational sense) would have “bound” and “loosed” abortion simultaneously, meaning that Heaven both agreed and disagreed with it!
In your second paragraph, you say,
You seem to have an implicit assumption that everyone needs to agree with Rome. And this leads you to conclude anyone not in communion with Rome is therefore in schism.
Well, yes: That does indeed seem to be the Scriptural model, after all.
When Korah disagrees with Moses about centralized authority roles in the People of God, it is decidedly not okay for him to march off and start a new People of God on the opposite street corner.
When 10 tribes of Israel got fed up with the Son (technically, the spoiled-brat grandson) of David, they split the kingdom. God even allowed it, and did not forget them, and blessed them for a time. But I ask you: Did God’s promise of an eternal kingdom come through Samaria, or Jerusalem? Did the scepter depart from Judah and go to the Northern Kingdom? Or were there two “scepters?” When it was time to restore the people to the land, who got restored, and who was scattered?
God provides a locus of unity for His people. As it was in the beginning, is now, and ever shall be. So where is the locus of unity for the Kingdom, today?
Jesus, of course! …but He is in Heaven, at the right hand of the Father. The flock need a shepherd they can see. Did Jesus give no thought to that?
Of course He did. He did what the Davidic Kings always did: He had stewards in every place in the Kingdom, with specific territories or zones of authority. And when the king was away, the chief steward (who had a robe and throne of office, and who held the Keys of the House of David) was the person who kept the kingdom unified until the king returned. The “Al Bayith” had various functions: He was “like a father to those in Jerusalem”; he could “bind and loose” with stewardly authority on behalf of the king like the other stewards (but as chief steward, he could loose what others bound and bind what others loosed; and what he bound, none could loose, and what he loosed, none could bind).
That office was the locus of unity when the king was absent, under the sons of David. Is Jesus the rightful heir, the “Son of David,” or not?
He is. So the matter becomes simple: We look for Christ’s stewards, and let them adjudicate disputes; and if there is ever a dispute that the stewards themselves disagree about, then the chief steward will resolve it. Once that happens, he who rejects the authority of the chief steward is rejecting the authority of the King. If a large group does so, it becomes a rebel province separating from the Kingdom.
To determine to whom Jesus granted the office of chief steward, we need only ask: To whom did Jesus give the Keys of the House of David? (But of course, the Old Covenant type is the Davidic Kingdom; the New Covenant fulfillment is the Kingdom of Heaven. So whereas a Davidic king might assign his chief steward “the keys of the kingdom of David,” Jesus will naturally assign His chief steward “the keys of the kingdom of Heaven.”)
Protestant scholars generally agree with Catholic scholars about Matthew 16: Jesus here makes Peter the chief steward. Isaiah 22 is the background in the Old Covenant for this conferral of authority in the New.
Now the stewardly offices could increase or decrease in number as the kingdom grew; but when one steward died, a successor was always chosen for his office. We see a successor chosen for the office of Judas Iscariot in Acts 1, so we know that this stewardly succession was not merely an Old Testament practice, but continues in the New.
Does it not follow that Peter, as Al Bayith, would have successors also? Does it not follow that when following the Matthew 18 process, if stewards disagree the best practice is to appeal the matter to the chief steward who can bind what others loose, and loose what others bind, and thereby settle the matter for the whole Kingdom? “Roma locuta, causa finita est.”
It’s all deeply Scriptural, and it makes church discipline according to the Matthew 18 model possible.

Thursday, September 27, 2012

sacraments

http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2012/09/lawrence-feingold-why-do-we-need-sacraments/

also here

Question 175: Why do the sacraments belong to the Church? Why cannot anyone use them however he wants?
Jesus entrusted his words and signs to specific men, namely, the apostles, who were to hand them on; he did not hand them over to an anonymous crowd. Today we would say: He did not post his inheritance on the Internet for free access but rather registered it under a domain name. Sacraments exist for the Church and through the Church. They are for her, because the Body of Christ, which is the Church, is established, nourished, and perfected through the sacraments. They exist through her, because the sacraments are the power of Christ’s Body, for example in confession, where Christ forgives our sins through the priest.

 This text comes from the YOUCAT - an accessible expression of the Catechism of the Catholic Church in a simple Q & A format. [Learn more here]

from comment 13 http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2009/12/justification-catholic-church-and-the-judaizers/

All the grace that comes from Christ’s Passion, comes to us in the New Covenant through the sacraments He has established in His Church. That is true even when this sanctifying grace comes to a person prior their reception of the sacrament. In such a case it is not that sanctifying grace came to them apart from the sacrament; rather, the grace they received came through the sacrament, prior to their reception of the sacrament.

from comment  98 http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2013/12/rome-geneva-and-the-incarnations-native-soil/


Speaking of the incarnation and “native soil”, I think it would appropriate to bring up the growing parables. I think you would agree that the parable of the Vine and the Branches in John 15 show the relationship between Christ and the Church. How does a vine grow? It grows from the seed and only while it is attached to the root of the vine. Christ is the seed which was planted into the earth and died; He is the root of the vine. The work of Christ is “finished” in that the grower has finished the planting, the vine has sprung forth from the soil.
But what is unfinished is the growing (and, at some point, the harvest). We are in the growing time, and this is the time in which the Church, who subsists in the many branches of the vine, participates in the life of Christ which springs forth from the seed and the root. It is by this participation in the life of Christ that the Church can bear good fruit.
Christ and the Church are one in many ways. Christ and the Church are one as the Bride and the Bridegroom are one body. Christ and the Church are one as the life in the seed is the life of the vine. And after the seed has sprung into life, the vine is inseparable from the seed. The life of the Church is the life of Christ. What the Church does (the sacraments) is what Christ does, just as what a Body does it what a Head does. Just as the world is saved by a seed falling into the earth and dying, the world is saved by the vine springing forth and growing into abundance. In this way, the life of the Church, the sacraments, are the good fruit and God’s chosen means for the salvation of the world.
When we say salvation is by grace alone, we mean that salvation comes by grace through the life of Christ, the Word, the seed, the root of the vine, who is embodied in His Church, which springs from this seed and this root. Circumcision was a work of the Mosaic Law; but the good fruit of the Church are not works of the old law. These works are the good fruit of a people which _already_ share in the divine life. What the Church does by grace is a participation in the life of God.
The sacraments are the divine life of the Church. When the Church baptizes, she is bearing good fruit by participation in the baptism of Christ, by which He purified the waters. When the Church offers the mass, she is bearing good fruit by participation in the one and only, eternal sacrifice of Christ, by which He atoned for for the sins of the whole world. These sacraments are one with the work of Christ; because our life is one with His. In the sacraments, God meets man in a divine life.
Hopefully you can see the following points.
* Christ’s work is finished, but His divine life continues in the life of the Church and in the “good fruit” which are the sacraments.
* Having one body and one life with Christ does not mean the head has “collapsed” into the Body just as a married man and woman share one body and one life, but still have a head.
* The sacraments are not a “work of the Law”, the sacraments are a participation in Christ’s divine life. There is no way the sacraments could be “works of the Law”, because the sacraments were not revealed when the Law was revealed. The sacraments were revealed by Christ and so are part of His divine life.
* No one is saved by baptizing Himself. It is God’s grace working through Church who baptizes as an instrument of God’s grace.
* Just as Christ is God’s instrument for the salvation of the world; it is the Church which carries that salvation into the whole world by sharing in His life.
* Salvation and the divine life is more than knowing the “truths of the gospel”. Proclamation and Truth is fundamental, but Christ didn’t come to transform just what we know, He came to transform our whole selves. We are people who live and act; the spirit of Christ transforms our life and actions (habits).

You may not agree with these points, but I hope these points will help you understand the Catholic faith, so you can criticize what we actually believe rather than what you are presenting here.

comment 119 here http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2013/12/rome-geneva-and-the-incarnations-native-soil/#comment-68449

The righteous shall live by faith.
I suspect you differ from the Catholic in your concept of “living faith”. When I read this verse, I see a man whose character is changed by God’s grace such that his life is ordered towards faithful obedience to the God he loves. Bryan describes the Catholic concept of faith here:
http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2009/09/does-the-bible-teach-sola-fide/
You objected to the sacraments being “instruments of God’s grace”, and said:
salvation comes directly thru the Word by work of the Spirit
But earlier, you pointed out Romans 10, which says:
How are they to believe in one of whom they have never heard? And how are they to hear without someone to proclaim him? And how are they to proclaim him unless they are sent?
What I am saying about the sacraments being instruments of God’s grace is in a similar way true of proclamation of the gospel. Proclamation is an instrument of grace, so when the Church proclaims the gospel, she is participating in the supernatural life of Christ, who is the Word and first proclaimed the gospel. This is another example by which grace comes to sinners through the divine life of the Church.
But the Church would not be proclaiming the gospel in its fullness if she stopped with proclamation and did not administer the sacraments. The sinner who has heard the gospel and been cut to the heart asks “what must I do?” because he desires a new life. Peter’s answer is “Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit”. We need the gift of the sacraments because we long not only for knowledge, but also for new life. We need the sacraments because we need not only to know God, but also to meet Him. We need to die with Christ so that we can live with Him.
Finally, you asked if grace is a free gift, or does grace come through the sacraments. To the Catholic, this is a false dichotomy. Grace is free and grace comes through the sacraments. The sacraments themselves are free gifts to the people of God.
Note that grace comes through the sacraments as the ordinary means instituted by Christ. But the Church affirms that God’s grace is found not only in the sacraments. In fact, the sacraments themselves can come to people in extraordinary ways. For instance, there is the ordinary form of baptism, but also baptism of desire, and baptism of blood. There is an ordinary form of reconciliation, but reconciliation happens about whenever we experience contrition and repentance for our sins out of love for God. in which the Holy Spirit works where He wants to work.

comment 120 http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2013/12/rome-geneva-and-the-incarnations-native-soil/#comment-68449

On Warfield, I share Jason’s concerns. Warfield seems to simultaneously affirm that we participate in the Incarnation and yet to put a wedge between Christ and those participating in Him.
Just as a general concern, one big problem is that you are distinguishing the work of Christ and the work of the Spirit, which is impossible if we are to affirm the unity of the Trinity (one divine nature, one divine operation). None of the Trinity work separately. Another is that you are distinguishing the Sacraments from the work of God, and you are suggesting that God did not choose to work through the Sacraments, as if the priests are somehow forcing God to do something. This is why you are thinking of the work of the Spirit through the Word as being an internal effect of hearing Scripture. The entire point is the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit are all simultaneously working from the effectual call (the drawing of the Father, the preaching of the Word of God, the internal movement of the Holy Spirit) to the participation in the Sacraments both in initial justification (the work of God, which grants faith). The reason that I reject the justification/sanctification distinction is precisely that I reject this nominalist idea that different words mean different realities. The distinct terms refer to one reality, so that when I see references to faith working in love or the work of God in the soul, I refer them to the one reality of the shared life of God, just as the Fathers did. The same is true of justification, as Catholic Biblical scholars like Joseph Fitzmyer, Brendan Byrne, and Margaret Mitchell all maintained. They do not chop the work of God into pieces, which actually would deny the unity of the divine economy, but they affirm that it is a single reality granted in the Trinitarian work of the Incarnation.
As to the Fathers, I agree that we do not turn into non-human beings in the Incarnation. But there is a difference between that and purely ethical/juridical participation, and reading that account back into the Fathers would be completely anachronistic. That’s the part that you do not seem to have gleaned from the Fathers you cited, and the failure to grasp the concept of anachronism (a common fault of the time) is why Calvin misreads them badly.
On philosophy, again, we, Aquinas, and the Fathers all agree that one can know God only by what is revealed in His works and not by comprehensive knowledge of His essence. You’ve even correctly identified the cause; the nominalist response was answering the radical univocity of late scholasticism (as opposed to the moderate univocity of Scotus, something that the Catholic Brad Gregory gets badly wrong). But the correct response is to go back to the sources and to correct the original mistake (radical univocity), not to read the later solution (nominalism) back into the Fathers. Nor is it to rely on Scripture to solve the problem, because as I have pointed out, anachronistically reading nominalism back into the Scriptures eisegetically will not produce answers, only further confusion. Instead, one must view salvation, justification, and sanctification as a single reality with different aspects, which prevents all of the divisions that you (and Warfield) are introducing.


https://youtu.be/fqltefv6GnE


Liturgy


Liturgy--statement by Pope Benedict 16 on Sept 26, 2012
Dear Brothers and Sisters in Christ, Having focused for several weeks now on prayer as taught to us in the sacred Scriptures, we turn to another precious source of prayer, namely the liturgy. The word “liturgy” in Greek means “work done by the people and for the people”. Here, this “people” is the new People of God, brought into being by Christ, a people which does not exist by itself and which is not bound by blood, territory or country, but is brought into being through the Paschal Mystery.
The liturgy is also the “work of God”. As the Second Vatican Council teaches, it is by means of the liturgy that Christ our Redeemer and High Priest continues the work of our redemption in, with, and through his Church. This is the great marvel of the liturgy: God acts, while we are caught up in his action.
The Council began its work by discussing the liturgy, and rightly so, for the liturgy reminds us of the primacy of God. The fundamental criterion for it is its orientation towards the Father, whose saving love culminates in the death and resurrection of his Son. It is in the liturgy that we “lift up our hearts”, opening ourselves to the word of God as we gather with our brethren in a prayer which rises within us, and which is directed to the Father, through the Son, in the Spirit. (source)
video here: http://youtu.be/WmBQptzdeIY

liturgy still in use since ancient times  http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liturgy_of_St_James
(http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2014/05/the-witness-of-the-lost-christianities/#comment-111572)
The anaphora of St. James – the oldest Eucharistic liturgy in the Church, preserved in Syriac and in Greek, reads as follows:
Reject not, O my Lord, the service of this bloodless sacrifice for we rely not on our righteousness, but on Your mercy. Let not this Mystery, which was instituted for our salvation, be for our condemnation, but for the remission of our sins and for the rendering of thanks to You and to Your Only-begotten Son and to Your all holy, good, adorable, life-giving and consubstantial Spirit, now, always and forever.

Friday, September 21, 2012

idolatry?? Images?

Quote from  http://fatherangel.tumblr.com/
How do we know God is forbidding only the sin of idolatry, and not the fashioning of all images in general? Because the words that follow clearly forbid “thou shalt not adore them” and other Bibles say not to “bend the knee” or “bow down” before them in acts of worship. This is the essence of idolatry. It is making a graven image which is to be bowed down to and adored as if it is a god, instead of worshiping the true God.
We can safely conclude that Exodus 20:4-5 has nothing to do with prohibiting or forbidding the fashioning of images of angels and saints or any other thing as long as it is not adored as an idol. In fact, God commanded Moses just a few verses down to make two angels (cherubim) of gold and put them on the cover of the Ark of the Covenant!
“And make two cherubim out of hammered gold at the ends of the cover” (Exodus 25:18). 
So God not only permitted the making of images (of angels), but He commanded it! Again, when King Solomon built the Temple in Jerusalem, the Bible says he decorated the inner sanctuary with angels. Later on, God’s blessing came upon the Temple and He dwelt  there. If God was not pleased with the images of angels in the Temple, He would have ordered Solomon to remove them. But the angels were kept there as a reminder of how they take our prayers to God (Zechariah 1:12):
“And he set the cherubims in the midst of the inner temple: and the cherubims stretched forth their wings, and the wing of the one touched one wall, and the wing of the other cherub touched the other wall: and the other wings in the midst of the temple touched one another” (1 Kings 6:27).
There is a part in the Bible, in fact, where God even ordered Moses to fashion an image of a bronze serpent and mount it on a pole, so that when the people looked at the serpent image they would be healed of their snakebites. 
If making images of “anything on the earth” goes against Exodus 20:4, and Catholics are promoting idolatry, then we would have to accuse even God of promoting idolatry! Because it is God who commanded images of angels to be fashioned, and even the image of a bronze serpent when the people suffered snakebites in the desert. Here is the Scripture:
The LORD said to Moses, “Make a snake and put it up on a pole; anyone who is bitten can look at it and live” (Numbers 21:8).
So, to sum up:
1) God forbids fashioning a graven image that is turned into an idol by giving the image adoration.
2) God does not forbid fashioning a graven image that is a reminder of holy beings (like angels on the Ark and in the Temple). In fact, God ordered such images to be fashioned.
3) Catholics fashion graven images but they do not worship and adore them, but allow them to be venerated as reminders of holy beings (angels and saints) who are in heaven.
4) Therefore, Catholics are not violating the precept of Exodus 20:4-5, and therefore, Catholics are not idolaters.
God bless and take care! Fr. Angel

From comment  72  http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2012/06/podcast-ep-17-jason-cindy-stewart-recount-their-conversion/

 1159 The sacred image, the liturgical icon, principally represents Christ. It cannot represent the invisible and incomprehensible God, but the incarnation of the Son of God has ushered in a new “economy” of images: “Previously God, who has neither a body nor a face, absolutely could not be represented by an image. But now that he has made himself visible in the flesh and has lived with men, I can make an image of what I have seen of God . . . and contemplate the glory of the Lord, his face unveiled.” 1160 Christian iconography expresses in images the same Gospel message that Scripture communicates by words. Image and word illuminate each other: “We declare that we preserve intact all the written and unwritten traditions of the Church which have been entrusted to us. One of these traditions consists in the production of representational artwork, which accords with the history of the preaching of the Gospel. For it confirms that the incarnation of the Word of God was real and not imaginary, and to our benefit as well, for realities that illustrate each other undoubtedly reflect each other’s meaning.”
The first quotation is from St. John of Damascus, the second quotation is from the Second Council of Nicaea. Note that the council says that they preserve all the “written and unwritten traditions of the Church” that were entrusted to them, and are in accord with the “history of the preaching of the Gospel.” In other words, the veneration of images is a reality the council believed to preserved as apostolically-faithful tradition.

interesting article here by Protestant: http://www.ligonier.org/learn/articles/graven-images/?fb_action_ids=10203319773023774&fb_action_types=og.likes&fb_source=other_multiline&action_object_map=[453025743059]&action_type_map=[%22og.likes%22]&action_ref_map=[]

Thursday, September 20, 2012

James use of justification

The word Justify in James/ an examination of whether it can just mean "show to be righteous"
I recently read on another blog that the word justified in James 2 means “to show to be righteous” rather than “make righteous.” If this is true, then it strongly upholds the Protestant view that all James meant to teach in this passage was that works demonstrate saving faith and nothing more. I went back and read the passage in James 2 carefully, though, and I concluded otherwise, namely, that James has in view the meaning “make righteous”—not merely “show to be righteous.” Admittedly, I am still working through this issue, but as of right now this is my take on James 2. I’ll go through it in parts to show how I arrived at my conclusion.
14 What good is it, my brothers, if someone says he has faith but does not have works? Can that faith save him?
So James is asking whether a certain faith is saving. This is important because the entire explanation that follows is written to answer that question. James is concerned with the issue of salvation, not whether others see our faith as genuine. He does not set out to answer the question, “How can someone know whether my faith is genuine?” but rather “What makes saving faith saving?” Certainly the former question gets answered in the process, but it’s vital to remember that James’ goal in this passage is to answer the rhetorical question he poses in v. 14: Can faith devoid of works save? And his answer is no because:
17 So also faith by itself, if it does not have works, is dead.
He is defining saving faith, not trying to explain what makes it look genuine in the eyes of others.
18 But someone will say, “You have faith and I have works.”
Here he presents a hypothetical objection from someone who attempts to separate faith from works, claiming that it’s possible to have saving faith without works.
Show me your faith apart from your works, and I will show you my faith by my works.
He now responds to the hypothetical claim that saving faith can exist apart from works. Note that his answer to this hypothetical objection is just part of his process of defining saving faith. This provides further proof that he is not primarily interested in whether works validate faith as saving in the eyes of other men. He’s not chiefly concerned with outward appearances—even though that does come up—but rather with what makes saving faith saving.
19 You believe that God is one; you do well. Even the demons believe—and shudder!
A mere intellectual belief is not enough for faith to be genuine, for even the demons believe but have no good works.
20 Do you want to be shown, you foolish person, that faith apart from works is useless? 21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up his son Isaac on the altar?
Here he brings up an example from the OT, Abraham, saying he was “justified by works.” Remember from v. 14 that he is mainly addressing whether a person’s faith is saving, not whether other people see it as such. James has salvation in view in this explanation, not the demonstration of genuine faith to others. So when he uses the phrase “justified by works” in reference to Abraham, what else can we make of it but that works played a role in Abraham’s justification and, therefore, did more than merely show him to be righteous?
22 You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was completed by his works;
It is impossible for true saving faith to exist without works, since faith and works are equally active, and faith is completed by works.
23 and the Scripture was fulfilled that says, “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness”—and he was called a friend of God. 24 You see that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone.
If James means “justified” here as “show to be righteous,” then the meaning would be: “You see that a person is shown to be righteous by works and not [shown to be righteous] by faith alone.” But again, this flies in the face of the issue he is seeking to resolve, as made plain in v. 14: whether faith without works saves. So he must be using the term justified in the same sense that Paul used it, i.e., in a manner connoting salvation. Since that is the case, how can works, according to James, be limited to a merely demonstrative role that takes place after justification?
25 And in the same way was not also Rahab the prostitute justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out by another way? 26 For as the body apart from the spirit is dead, so also faith apart from works is dead.
If justified here means “show to be righteous,” then Rahab was a poor example to use, since she lived among pagans and thus her good works would not have shown her to be righteous to anyone.

see also this link  http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2010/08/%CE%B4%CE%B9%CE%BA%CE%B1%CE%B9%CF%8C%CF%89-a-morphological-lexical-and-historical-analysis/