"Our earthly liturgies must be celebrations full of beauty and power: Feasts of the Father who created us—that is why the gifts of the earth play such a great part: the bread, the wine, oil and light, incense, sacred music, and splendid colors. Feasts of the Son who redeemed us—that is why we rejoice in our liberation, breathe deeply in listening to the Word, and are strengthened in eating the Eucharistic Gifts. Feasts of the Holy Spirit who lives in us—that is why there is a wealth of consolation, knowledge, courage, strength, and blessing that flows from these sacred assemblies." unknown source possibly YOUCAT Mal.1.11 For from the rising of the sun even unto the going down of the same my name shall be great among the Gentiles; and in every place incense shall be offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name shall be great among the heathen, saith theLord of hosts.

Wednesday, August 29, 2012

union with Christ


also


"He continues:
In contrast to the Romish doctrine, Perkins wanted to be clear that, relative to acceptance with God, Christ’s righteousness is truly extra nos (outside us) but he himself does not remain so. Again, one hears Calvin saying: If Christ remains outside of us, he is of no benefit to us. By virtue of Sprit-wrought union with Christ, we become bone of his bone and flesh of his flesh.
This ends up being a Cheshire cat conception of justification: Christ is within the believer, but His righteousness is not within the believer. When Christ comes into the believer, He leaves His righteousness outside the door of the believer’s soul. Of course this would entail that the Christ in the believer is unrighteous, or at least that His righteousness is external to Him as well, at least when and where He is in the believer. It would imply that the righteousness of the Christ within the believer is alien not only to the believer, but also to the Christ in the believer. The problematic character of these implications need no explanation."  comment 347 in part: http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2012/08/imputation-and-paradigms-a-reply-to-nicholas-batzig/#comment-38204  below the quote is also from this.





"This position presupposes the list paradigm of righteousness, according to which it is not the case that Christ is our supernatural Righteousness and we are made righteous by the gift of participation in Him, but that Christ’s righteousness is something that can be separated from Him, because it is a set of acts of obedience to the law by Christ in His human will. In the agape paradigm, by contrast, Christ in His human nature was righteous from conception because of sanctifying grace and infused agape, before [logically] in His human will He obeyed the Father. Implicit within the list paradigm is a rejection of the traditional distinction between nature and grace, and between the natural order and the supernatural order. Barrett shows as much in his discussion of the Reformed conception of the Covenant of Works, in his article “Pelagian Westminster?.”
Another difficulty for Clark’s position is that it has no means of coherently distinguishing between the sense in which Christ is uniquely in the believer, and the sense in which Christ is everywhere by His omnipresence. If Christ is truly united to us internally, then so is His righteousness, because He is nowhere unrighteous. If, on the other hand, Christ’s righteousness is not united to us internally, then Clark’s claim that Christ is in us is reduced to the equivalent of Christ’s omnipresence in bees, trees and rocks. “Vital union” is not an option for Clark, because ‘vital union’ does not cohere with the conjunction of (a) the rejection of participation in the divine nature and (b) affirming the Creator-creature distinction, as I explained in “Nature, Grace, and Man’s Supernatural End: Feingold, Kline, and Clark.” The problem Barrett explained with the notion that Adam and Eve’s pre-Fall fellowship with God in the cool of the day was by unaided human nature and not by infused grace, is the same problem with the notion that without infused grace (see comment #3 in the “Pelagian Westminster?” thread) believers can have “vital union” with Christ."

Catholic Encyclopedia, article Supernatural Gift(http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/06553a.htm)
A supernatural gift may be defined as something conferred on nature that is above all the powers (vires) of created nature. When God created man, He was not content with bestowing upon him the essential endowments required by man’s nature. He raised him to a higher state, adding certain gifts to which his nature had no claim. They comprise qualities and perfections, forces and energies, dignities and rights, destination to final objects, of which the essential constitution of man is not the principle; which are not required for the attainment of the final perfection of the natural order of man; and which can only be communicated by the free operation of God’s goodness and power. Some of these are absolutely supernatural, i.e. beyond the reach of all created nature (even of the angels), and elevate the creature to a dignity and perfection natural to God alone; others are only relatively supernatural (preternatural), i.e. above human nature only and elevate human nature to that state of higher perfection which is natural to the angels. The original state of man comprised both of these, and when he fell he lost both. Christ has restored to us the absolutely supernatural gifts, but the preternatural gifts He has not restored. …
The absolutely supernatural gifts, which alone are the supernatural properly so called, are summed up in the divine adoption of man to be the son and heir of God. This expression, and the explanations given of it by the sacred writers, make it evident that the sonship is something far more than a relation founded upon the absence of sin; it is of a thoroughly intimate character, raising the creature from its naturally humble estate, and making it the object of a peculiar benevolence and complaisance on God’s part, admitting it to filial love, and enabling it to become God’s heir, i.e. a partaker of God’s own beatitude. …
Divine adoption is a new birth of the soul (John 1:12-13 and 3:5; 1 John 3:9; 5:1; 1 Peter 1:3 and 1:23; James 1:18; Titus 3:5, Ephesians 2:5). This regeneration implies the foundation of a higher state of being and life, resulting from a special Divine influence, and admitting us to the dignity of sons of God. “For whom he foreknew, he also predestinated to be made conformable to the image of his Son; that he might be the firstborn amongst many brethren” (Romans 8:29). cf. also 2 Corinthians 3:18; Galatians 3:26-27 and 4:19; Romans 13:14. As a consequence of this Divine adoption and new birth we are made “partakers of the divine nature” (theias koinonoi physeos, 2 Peter 1:4). The whole context of this passage and the passages already quoted show that this expression is to be taken as literally as possible not, indeed, as a generation from the substance of God, but as a communication of Divine life by the power of God, and a most intimate indwelling of His substance in the creature. Hence, too, the inheritance is not confined to natural goods. It embraces the possession and fruition of the good which is the natural inheritance of the Son of God, viz., the beatific vision.
"We are now the sons of God; and it hath not yet appeared what we shall be. We know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like to him because we shall see him as he is" (1 John 3:2). "We see now through a glass in a dark manner; but then [in the beatific vision] face to face" (1 Corinthians 13:12). The Fathers have not hesitated to callsupernatural union of the creature with God the deification of the creature. This is a favorite expression of St. Irenæus ("Adv. Haer.", III, xvii, xix; IV, xx, etc.), and is frequently used by St. Athanasius (see Newman, "St. Athanasius", II, 88). See alsoSt. Augustine (? Serm. cxci, "In Nat. Dom."), quoted by St. Thomas (III:1:3).

see also my link on Theosis:  http://nannykim-catholicconsiderations.blogspot.com/2012/10/theosis.html
from comment 34 here : http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2012/11/how-the-church-won-an-interview-with-jason-stellman/#comment-39945

 Salvation, then, consists in becoming a partaker of the divine nature. That means becoming by adoption what God is by nature; the Greek word for that is theosis, “divinization.” Since God is free, divinization does not override our freedom, but frees it from slavery to sin. Thus it is only when we have become partakers of the divine nature by baptism that we are free to follow the two great commandments of love–or not. That does not mean we earn grace by our own power of free choice; it means that our own power of free choice is enabled, by God’s unmerited communication of his own nature, to choose as God wills within us, and thus to partake of the divine nature. Being finally saved, therefore, does not displace our freedom but restores it–if we would but have it so. That is synergism, not monergism. Synergism is both biblical and patristic.
from comment 51 here: http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2012/11/how-the-church-won-an-interview-with-jason-stellman/#comment-39984

 Do Protestants really believe imputations means an external declaration and not an internal change?
 Many Protestants do, including the ones participating in this thread. Catholics believe that justification, which happens by God’s declaring us righteous, i>also initiates sanctification, and thus internal change. Thus God’s declaring us righteous makes us truly righteous, and does not merely cover over sin.
Just before that, you asked a series of questions:
The concept I am trying to understand, then, is if I become a partaker of the divine nature because I am in Christ, then am I not participating in “His” righteousness (a righteousness outside of myself that somehow becomes internal)? When Christ’s righteousness is united to us internally is this not “His” righteousness? As you stated, it is a “communication of His own nature”.Is the only difference, between this concept and imputation , the idea that one is external and the other is internal? How is the internal “my” righteousness? Do I become so united with Christ’s nature that our natures ……are one and the same so that it is now my righteousness ? 
When we become righteous, the life of God is lived within us and transforms us, so that our actions performed by his grace become his actions and vice-versa, by a cooperation of wills. That’s what it means to undergo the process of divinization. We do not become God by nature, but by participation.

from comment 169 found on this post: http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2010/06/reformed-imputation-and-the-lords-prayer/#comment-50610

 We are not physically in heaven, yet the inspired apostle says we are there now (Eph. 2:6);
Your interpretation of this verse makes both St. Paul and the Holy Spirit (who inspired him) to be speaking a falsehood. We on earth are not ourselves in heaven now. The meaning of the verse is that Christ took with Him human nature (which we share with Him), when He ascended (today’s feast!). And because we are joined with Him through baptism, therefore through the Church (which is His Mystical Body) we are already in heaven with Him through His being there and through our union with Him. But that is not the same as our being there directly. St. Paul is not speaking falsely.

from comment 347 http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2012/08/imputation-and-paradigms-a-reply-to-nicholas-batzig/comment-page-7/#comment-38219

answering the first paragraph's statement:
He continues:
In contrast to the Romish doctrine, Perkins wanted to be clear that, relative to acceptance with God, Christ’s righteousness is truly extra nos (outside us) but he himself does not remain so. Again, one hears Calvin saying: If Christ remains outside of us, he is of no benefit to us. By virtue of Sprit-wrought union with Christ, we become bone of his bone and flesh of his flesh.
This ends up being a Cheshire cat conception of justification: Christ is within the believer, but His righteousness is not within the believer. When Christ comes into the believer, He leaves His righteousness outside the door of the believer’s soul. Of course this would entail that the Christ in the believer is unrighteous, or at least that His righteousness is external to Him as well, at least when and where He is in the believer. It would imply that the righteousness of the Christ within the believer is alien not only to the believer, but also to the Christ in the believer. The problematic character of these implications need no explanation.
This position presupposes the list paradigm of righteousness, according to which it is not the case that Christ is our supernatural Righteousness and we are made righteous by the gift of participation in Him, but that Christ’s righteousness is something that can be separated from Him, because it is a set of acts of obedience to the law by Christ in His human will. In the agape paradigm, by contrast, Christ in His human nature was righteous from conception because of sanctifying grace and infused agape, before [logically] in His human will He obeyed the Father. Implicit within the list paradigm is a rejection of the traditional distinction between nature and grace, and between the natural order and the supernatural order. Barrett shows as much in his discussion of the Reformed conception of the Covenant of Works, in his article “Pelagian Westminster?.”
Another difficulty for Clark’s position is that it has no means of coherently distinguishing between the sense in which Christ is uniquely in the believer, and the sense in which Christ is everywhere by His omnipresence. If Christ is truly united to us internally, then so is His righteousness, because He is nowhere unrighteous. If, on the other hand, Christ’s righteousness is not united to us internally, then Clark’s claim that Christ is in us is reduced to the equivalent of Christ’s omnipresence in bees, trees and rocks. “Vital union” is not an option for Clark, because ‘vital union’ does not cohere with the conjunction of (a) the rejection of participation in the divine nature and (b) affirming the Creator-creature distinction, as I explained in “Nature, Grace, and Man’s Supernatural End: Feingold, Kline, and Clark.” The problem Barrett explained with the notion that Adam and Eve’s pre-Fall fellowship with God in the cool of the day was by unaided human nature and not by infused grace, is the same problem with the notion that without infused grace (see comment #3 in the “Pelagian Westminster?” thread) believers can have “vital union” with Christ.

from comment 45 http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2011/07/habitual-sin-and-the-grace-of-the-sacraments/

If you don’t have time to answer, that’s fine. I still want to consider one claim you made. You wrote:
Participation is an essential element to the Reformed eschatology and soteriology. It is not the same as Rome, but Rome does not have an monopoly on what participation is.
No doubt Rome does not have a monopoly on what participation is. But surely English speakers do. I’m reminded of Humpty Dumpty’s dialogue with Alice:
There’s glory for you!’
‘I don’t know what you mean by “glory”,’ Alice said.
Humpty Dumpty smiled contemptuously. ‘Of course you don’t — till I tell you. I meant “there’s a nice knock-down argument for you!”‘
‘But “glory” doesn’t mean “a nice knock-down argument”,’ Alice objected.
‘When I use a word,’ Humpty Dumpty said, in rather a scornful tone, ‘it means just what I choose it to mean — neither more nor less.’
‘The question is,’ said Alice, ‘whether you can make words mean so many different things.’
‘The question is,’ said Humpty Dumpty, ‘which is to be master — that’s all.’
If you define ‘participation’ in such a way that even a mere forensic or covenantal relationship is a form of participation, and then claim that your position includes participation because there is a covenantal relationship between God and creature, your position would be no different [in substance] if you had denied that your position involved ‘participation,’ but involved only a forensic or covenantal relationship between God and man. So semantics is doing all the work here. The question is whether extrinsic relations are rightly called participation relations.
When we speak of participation, we often mean something much more [ontological] than a mere extrinsic relation. The organs of a body, for example, participate in the life of that organism; they are [parts of] that organism, not merely extrinsically related to it. To define ‘participation’ such that it refers not only to ontological relations but also to all extrinsic relations would reduce the meaning of the term ‘participation’ to the present meaning of the word ‘relation,’ and thus essentially eliminate the need for the term ‘participation,’ since [by the stipulated definition] there could not be any relations that were not participatory relations. As Incrediboy points out, when everything is super, then nothing is super. In other words, when every relation is by definition ‘participatory’ then the term ‘participatory’ does not add anything to the term ‘relation,’ and is thus evacuated of meaning. So in this way your semantic claim here stipulatively eliminates the distinction between participatory relationships and non-participatory relationships, and such an elimination is a methodological denial that there is such a thing as ontological participation. In that respect, it seems to me that your semantic claim begs the question, i.e. assumes precisely that the covenantal view of union is right, and that the ontological conception of [participatory] union is false.
I wonder what you think of Chapter 18 of Michael Horton’s recent book, The Christian Faith. The title of this chapter is “Union with Christ,” and in it, he defines union with Christ as covenantal, and rejects an ontological union (which he describes as ‘fusion’). But this ontological union is what we [Catholics] are talking about when we speak of receiving grace in the sacraments. We are not talking about the strengthening of a promise between God and man. Nor are we talking about a growth in knowledge of what God has done for us. Nor are we talking about an elimination of individual identity or claiming that in heaven Christians cease to be creatures. By no means. Rather, through the Catholic sacraments we are growing in our ontological participation in the divine nature, such that we, by divine condescension and gift, come more and more to have God’s nature as our second nature. This is why we are truly called sons of God by adoption. The adoption is not merely stipulative, but by the sacraments we truly are made to share in the divine nature, such that by His gracious gift, we become sons of God through ontological union with the Son of God. This is what the tradition means by ‘theosis’ and ‘deification.’ See my “Horton on Being Made One Flesh with Christ.” My point here is that if you think Horton is wrong (about the nature of union with Christ), then it seems to me that you are distancing yourself from the Reformed tradition. But if you think Horton is right, then it seems that you can’t rightly call your position ‘participatory,’ because even though God gives us gifts (on that view), we are not ontological sharers in the divine nature, and the relation between God and creatures remains extrinsic.
and from comment 81: 
I don’t deny that in the Reformed system the bread and wine represent Christ’s body and blood. But Zwingli said as much. When I ask you what sort of union you are talking about (when you say “we are united to Christ’s person”) you respond by saying that “What the Holy Spirit does is unite us to Christ through the Supper.” But the nature of that union is precisely what I am asking you to explain. So it does no good to explain “united to Christ’s person” by saying that the Holy Spirit unites us to Christ. It repeats the term in question (‘united’) with the same term (‘unite’).
As you may have seen in my “Sinclair Ferguson comment,” in the Reformed system there is no middle position between fusion on the one hand, and mere covenantal union on the other. Hence, when you start talking about an “existential union,” you are saying something that, in the Reformed system, is either semantic gibberish, or is incompatible with the Reformed system, since there is no room in the Reformed system for grace as a “participation in the divine nature.” But there is no other way (I can see) to make sense of an existential union with Christ (where our very existence/being is His own) except by participation in the divine nature. In other words participation in the divine nature is the only option between covenantal [i.e. extrinsic] union on the one hand, and Creator-creature distinction-erasing fusion on the other hand.

from comment 92

You’re right that among the early Reformers the term “saving graces” was used. I noted as much incomment #3 of the “Pelagian Westminster?” thread, and in #87 above. But Clark has a good reason for wanting to use a different term for what the WLC refers to as “saving graces.” See Sinclair Ferguson’s statement in comment #54 of the “Nature, Grace, and Man’s Supernatural End” thread. Ferguson’s position is the contemporary Reformed (and Protestant) position. I see it over and over coming from Reformed leaders, not just Clark and Horton. Timothy George says something similar in his bookAmazing Grace. In fact, I can’t think of a single Reformed leader who would take issue with what Ferguson says there.
The reason Clark does not want to use the term ‘grace’ for what the early Reformers were referring to when they used terms like “saving graces” is that what they were referring to is entirely different from what in Catholic theology is meant by the terms ‘actual grace’ and ‘sanctifying grace.’ In Reformed theology these ‘saving graces’ are God working in us to repair our fallen nature. So we could more accurately describe them as divinely wrought repairs to our human nature. In Reformed theology nothing divine is actually “infused” into us; rather, God works in us to repair what is fallen to its original nature. That’s why it is misleading (given Reformed theology) to speak of graces being infused into the believer; it is like saying that a repair was infused into your car at the shop. Repairs are not the sort of things that are infused; repairs are made, effected or accomplished, not infused.
In Catholic doctrine, grace is ordered to our supernatural end, and human nature is not itself fallen, as I have described in “Nature, Grace, and Man’s Supernatural End: Feingold, Kline, and the Clark.” So in Catholic doctrine grace is rightly described as infused, because it is not a repair, but is a participation in the divine nature, not something we have by nature, or effected by repairing something we have by nature.
Of course Clark is not denying sanctification, and not denying that the Spirit effects sanctification through Word and sacraments. So he is not denying the selections from the WLC and the WSC to which you refer. He is trying to avoid semantic confusion between the Catholic understanding of grace as infused participation in the divine nature, and the Reformed notion of the Spirit working in us to repair our fallen human nature. See pages 575-579 of volume 3 of Bavink’s Reformed Dogmatics. Repairing our fallen nature does not entail that there is any ontological union with Christ, or any participation in the divine nature, i.e. theosis. So, I don’t see that the statements to which you are referring (in the WSC, WLC, etc.) falsify anything I said. No Reformed person I know would ever say that God doesn’t sanctify believers, and nothing I said, so far as I can tell, entails or implies that Reformed theology denies that God works in believers to sanctify them. So if sanctification is all that is meant by “infusion of graces,” then of course Reformed theology affirms that. But, at that point we’re meaning something so different by “infusion of grace” that we’re equivocating and possibly misleading, for the reasons I’ve just explained. And that’s what Clark is trying to avoid, it seems to me.

from comment 43 here http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2013/12/rome-geneva-and-the-incarnations-native-soil/

I agree that participation includes and is ordered to fellowship, but there can be no fellowship with God without participation, because a creature cannot have fellowship with God without grace. (See “Pelagian Westminster?“) Fellowship with God is not merely loving Him as Creator, but loving Him as Father. And that involves loving Him with the Love by which He loves Himself. Our participation in that Love by which God Loves Himself is what is called agape. And as St. Thomas explains in Summa Theologica I-II Q.110 a.3, grace is not the same thing as agape, or faith or hope. Rather, faith, hope, and agape are said to be supernatural infused virtues (i.e. excellencies), that direct us to that supernatural end (of knowing and loving God as He knows and loves Himself). But they cannot be excellencies within us in relation to *our* human nature, because that would elide the Creator-creature distinction, which is the error of Pelagianism, as I have explained here. As St. Thomas explains, faith, hope, and agape can be excellencies for us only if by grace we are made sharers in the divine nature. Hence he writes:
But it is manifest that the virtues acquired by human acts of which we spoke above (55, seqq.) are dispositions, whereby a man is fittingly disposed with reference to the nature whereby he is a man; whereas infused virtues dispose man in a higher manner and towards a higher end, and consequently in relation to some higher nature, i.e. in relation to a participation of the Divine Nature, according to 2 Peter 1:4: “He hath given us most great and most precious promises; that by these you may be made partakers of the Divine Nature.” And it is in respect of receiving this nature that we are said to be born again sons of God.
And thus, even as the natural light of reason is something besides the acquired virtues, which are ordained to this natural light, so also the light of grace which is a participation of the Divine Nature is something besides the infused virtues which are derived from and are ordained to this light, hence the Apostle says (Ephesians 5:8): “For you were heretofore darkness, but now light in the Lord. Walk then as children of the light.” For as the acquired virtues enable a man to walk, in accordance with the natural light of reason, so do the infused virtues enable a man to walk as befits the light of grace.
So the infused virtues (i.e. faith, hope, and agape) dispose us to that supernatural end, but they do so as virtues in relation to a nature, one by which these are virtues, and to which these virtues are directed. In the case of natural virtues, we have our natural powers through our human nature, and our natural virtues are directed to the end or telos of human nature. But because of the Creator-creature distinction, our natural end is not God’s perfect divine life; we are not God. So in order to share in God’s perfect divine life, we need grace, by which we are made participants in the divine nature, such that we can enter into the divine life. This is why even Adam and Eve needed grace *before* the Fall in order to have fellowship with God. To deny this is to deny the Creator-creature distinction, and thus either fall into polytheism (i.e. by treating man’s given nature as equivalent to God’s) or atheism (i.e. by reducing God’s nature to that of a mere man).

from comment 54

The divine nature is eternal, but the participation itself is not, since the creature participating in the divine nature is not eternal. Yet, the object of the participation is God. So, the creature, by this participation, does ‘get’ something “in God,” namely, he participates in the divine nature, as St. Peter says in 2 Peter 1:4.
Participation in God is not the same as God; otherwise, there would be no Creator-creature distinction. Participation is created; God is uncreated. Hence participation can be lost (through mortal sin) by that which is participating. Hence though the Love by which through grace we love Him is a participation in God’s Love for Himself, we can lose this Love through mortal sin, precisely because this Love in us is a participation.

also here a comment on participation and philosophy: comment 61 http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2013/12/rome-geneva-and-the-incarnations-native-soil/

 I just want to say that this idea of that Augustine introduced a legacy of ontology significantly determined by Neoplatonic sensibilities has been essentially dismissed by modern scholarship (see Lewis Ayres and Michel Rene Barnes among Catholic scholars and Maarten Wisse among Reformed scholars). The same (i.e., that the doctrine of participation was Biblical and not fundamentally Neoplatonic) has been abundantly clear among scholars of the Eastern Fathers for many years. So if your critique is based on such dated and inaccurate characterizations, it is hard to take seriously. In any case, it is extremely clear that the pro-Nicene account that supported conciliar Christianity was based on exactly this concept of participation, articulated in terms of the person/nature distinction. Therefore, your argument would prove too much, in that it would tar the entire history of Christianity with the Neoplatonic brush.
Unlike animals, human beings have certain capacities for instance, to learn languages or a capacity for generosity. These capacities are realized in action when particular human beings speak languages or perform generous actions. But between capacity and action there is an intermediate state possible. when we say that a man can speak french, we mean neither that he is actually speaking french, nor that speaking french is a mere logical possibly, States such as knowing french are dispositions. A disposition is halfway between a capacity and an action, between pure potentiality and actuality.For Aquinas regeneration is an infused habit or disposition that is somewhere between a mere logical possibility and a realized action: prevenient, but not actual grace.Auqinas writes” infuses the gift of justifying grace in such a way that, at the same time, he also moves the free choice to accept the gift of grace” the forgiveness of sins”. The case of infant baptism is paradigmatic for this process from infused justification to forgiveness of sins. Regeneration replaces imputation: God works in us is the basis of forgiveness.
Exactly, and orthodox Christianity formulates that distinction in terms of nature (capacity) versus person (exercise). So long as the capacity is supernatural, its exercise cannot possibly be the work of the person. But this does not imply that the person does not actualize it, i.e., that God does not work through the person. So Aquinas’s distinction is well-grounded in the categories historically articulated by conciliar Christianity.
For Calvin we by contrast say” that justification consists in the remission of sins and the imputation of Christ’s righteousness. If we make regeneration to be the basis of the non imputation of sin, as Tomas had it, there remains no reason to distinguish between the two. Regeneration, after all, is sanctification viewed from the angle of an initiating moment rather than a larger process. Hence, Calvin insists on the imputation of Christ’s righteousness, in this development the decisive role was played for the reformed by Calvin’s response to challenge of a one-time Lutheran ny the name of Osiander. Byan salvation is ethical and juridicial as opposed to ontological and mystical. Calvin held that the righteousness of Christ is not a substance but his active obedience in fulfillment of the law and passive obedience on the cross. Calvin made a significant contribution in the distinction between essential righteousness and acquired righteousness, not only to the reformed but also to Protetantism in general. ”
I agree with you that Calvin’s position was an innovation that he himself introduced. And that innovation would rightly be characterized as a contradiction or a corruption of the nature/person distinction, rather than a development. As we saw above with your characterization of Aquinas, you have essentially collapsed the nature/person distinction that is fundamental to understanding Aquinas’s position. This collapse of the nature/person distinction was characteristic of the late medieval nominalism in which Calvin was steeped, so he had to invent a completely new category to account for it, which was this idea of ethical/juridical/covenantal salvation. Unfortunately, that category is itself contradictory of the metaphysical account of participation (nature and person) on which conciliar Christianity was built. So while you claim not to be introducing philosophical concepts, you are in fact relying on a philosophy (late medieval nominalism) that cannot be reconciled with Christianity.
By contrast, history has shown that conciliar Christianity used the categories of nature and person *without* relying on the underlying Neoplatonic philosophy; it legitimately transformed the philosophical categories to fit the Biblical categories. In fact, the heretics like Arius, Eunomius, and Nestorius were the ones who relied on philosophical categories to negate Biblical teaching, so the orthodox Fathers were actually the ones opposing the misuse of philosophy. This is the same method that Paul used in the Areopagus, and indeed, one of the most influential Christian saints was actually believed to be the same Dionysius the Areopagite mentioned in the Bible. Ironically, you are setting Calvin’s philosophical invention (the concept of free-standing juridical/legal salvation) against the dogmas taught by the very people who opposed the Neoplatonizing of the Gospel, the orthodox Fathers of the Church. Nor does Biblical scholarship support this idea of justification as juridical/legal salvation being separate from sanctification, as numerous Catholic Biblical scholars have pointed out. This isn’t to say that juridical/legal salvation plays no role, but it is grounded in the fundamental categories of the Incarnation, nature and person.
Absent that artificial separation, one would not read Bible verses as you do. For example, one would not view Peter’s communion with the divine nature as a purely covenantal category, even though that is clearly an aspect of the communion described therein. Likewise, one would understand the sense of “perfection” in Hebrews in terms of participation rather than a purely legal category, so those who are saved are legitimately perfected when they are baptized, even though that perfection can still be lost. Rather than reading the Bible through the philosophical categories of Calvin, which you admit that he invented, I would encourage you to put the late medieval nominalism aside and instead read the Bible through the categories of the Fathers who fought against the philosophers and defended the Biblical teaching.

Monday, August 13, 2012

Baptism of Babies


This is all a quote --the source is noted at the end:

''Regarding this claim:
in the first three hundred years of the church, “All baptisms were adults,…
I do not know whether Robert Wilken still holds that position. But, St. Cyprian, as you may know, was martyred in August of 258. In his Epistle 58 he and sixty-five other bishops replied to an inquiry by Bishop Fidus about whether infants must not be baptized before the eighth day after their birth, in keeping with the Jewish custom regarding circumcision. You can read the reply of the sixty-six bishops at the link. Their answer is that spiritual regeneration should not be withheld to the eighth day, as circumcision was.  
But, St. Augustine’s comments on this epistle are even more telling. St. Augustine writes:
And in the epistle which he [i.e. St. Cyprian] wrote with sixty-six of his joint-bishops to Bishop Fidus, when he [i.e. St. Cyprian] was consulted by him [i.e. Bishop Fidus] in respect of the law of circumcision, whether an infant might be baptized before the eighth day, this matter is treated in such a way as if by a divine forethought the catholic Church would already confute the Pelagian heretics who would appear so long afterwards. For he who had consulted had no doubt on the subject whether children on birth inherited original sin, which they might wash away by being born again. For be it far from the Christian faith to have at any time doubted on this matter. But he was in doubt whether the washing of regeneration, by which he made no question but that original sin was put away, ought to be given before the eighth day. (Against Two Letters of the Pelagians, Bk IV)
According to St. Augustine, the Christian faith has never doubted that (1) infants are born with original sin that must be washed away by being born again, and (2) that original sin is washed away through baptism. Even Bishop Fidus, who made the inquiry to St. Cyprian and the sixty-five other bishops, was not asking whether infants should be baptized, but only whether infants must not be baptized before the eighth day after their birth. So on this testimony alone, that among sixty-six bishops in the middle of the third century there is not even a question about whether infants should be baptized, but only whether they may be baptized before the eighth day after their birth, we can know that the claim that “in the first three hundred years of the church all baptisms were adults” is false.''


unbaptized babies who die



Yes God’s universal desire for the salvation of men extends to babies. But what that entails for babies who die before reaching the age of reason, and how they might receive grace or respond to that grace, we do not know. We know that sanctifying grace and agape is necessary to enter heaven. We also know that babies are born into this world in a state of original sin (i.e. deprived of sanctifying grace andagape). Nevertheless, the Catholic Church does not teach that unbaptized infants who die before reaching the age of reason go to heaven, nor does it teach that they go to hell. It calls us to entrust them to the mercy of God.
As regards children who have died without Baptism, the Church can only entrust them to the mercy of God, as she does in her funeral rites for them. Indeed, the great mercy of God who desires that all men should be saved, and Jesus’ tenderness toward children which caused him to say: “Let the children come to me, do not hinder them,” allow us to hope that there is a way of salvation for children who have died without Baptism. All the more urgent is the Church’s call not to prevent little children coming to Christ through the gift of holy Baptism. (CCC, 1261)



from the same link, comment 65

 St. Augustine’s view was that babies who die unbaptized end up with a mild form of hell forever. That view stemmed directly from his conviction that original sin is personal culpa. Aquinas softened that by putting such babies in a permanent “limbo,” a place of purely natural happiness. That became the common doctrine until the mid-20th century. But in response to the Calvinist and Jansenist challenges, the Church came gradually to repudiate the underlying premise that original sin is personal culpa. See CCC §405. Once that happened, the rationale for a permanent limbo disappeared. The Pope does not believe there is such a thing.
 Of course limbo remains an opinion one can hold within the ambit of orthodoxy. But a few Catholic traditionalists, such as Fr. Brian Harrison, still hold that the existence of a permanent limbo as the sempiternal fate for unbaptized babies has been infallibly taught by the ordinary and universal magisterium. For my response to that, see here. I also recommend Fr. Al Kimel’s treatment of the topic of limbo.


from the same link comment 67 in part: 

 All that is why the Church has never condemned the speculations of theologians about how infants who die unbaptized might yet come to enjoy the beatific vision. What speculations? I quote from the Wikipedia article on “Limbo,” which is actually pretty good (footnotes and links omitted; emphasis added):
The Ecumenical Council of Florence (1442) spoke of baptism as necessary even for children and required that they be baptised soon after birth. This had earlier been affirmed at the local Council of Carthage in 417. The Council of Florence also stated that those who die in original sin alone go to hell. John Wycliffe’s attack on the necessity of infant baptism was condemned by another general council, the Council of Constance. The Council of Trent in 1547 explicitly stated that baptism (or desire for baptism) was the means by which one is transferred “from that state wherein man is born a child of the first Adam, to the state of grace, and of the adoption of the sons of God, through the second Adam, Jesus Christ, our Saviour.
If adults could effectively be baptised through a desire for the sacrament when prevented from actually receiving it, some speculated that perhaps sacramentally unbaptised infants too might be saved by some waterless equivalent of ordinary baptism when prevented. Cajetan, a major 16th-century theologian, suggested that infants dying in the womb before birth, and so before ordinary sacramental baptism could be administered, might be saved through their mother’s wish for their baptism. Thus, there was no clear consensus that the Council of Florence had excluded salvation of infants by such extra-sacramental equivalents of baptism.
Through the 18th and 19th centuries, individual theologians (Bianchi in 1768, H. Klee in 1835, Caron in 1855, H. Schell in 1893) continued to formulate theories of how children who died unbaptised might still be saved. By 1952 a theologian such as Ludwig Ott could, in a widely used and well-regarded manual, openly teach the possibility that children who die unbaptised might be saved for heaven—though he still represented their going to limbo as the commonly taught opinion. In its 1980 instruction on children’s baptism the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith reaffirmed that “with regard to children who die without having received baptism, the Church can only entrust them to the mercy of God, as indeed she does in the funeral rite established for them.” And in 1984, when Joseph Ratzinger, then Cardinal Prefect of that Congregation, stated that, as a private theologian, he rejected the claim that children who die unbaptised cannot attain salvation, he was speaking for many academic theologians of his background and training.
Thus in 1992, the Catechism of the Catholic Church, while affirming that “the Church does not know of any means other than Baptism that assures entry into eternal beatitude”, but also stating that “God has bound salvation to the sacrament of Baptism, but he himself is not bound by his sacraments”, stated: “As regards children who have died without Baptism, the Church can only entrust them to the mercy of God, as she does in her funeral rites for them. Indeed, the great mercy of God who desires that all men should be saved, and Jesus’ tenderness toward children which caused him to say: ‘Let the children come to me, do not hinder them,’ allow us to hope that there is a way of salvation for children who have died without Baptism. All the more urgent is the Church’s call not to prevent little children coming to Christ through the gift of holy Baptism.
On April 22, 2007, the advisory body known as the International Theological Commission released a document, originally commissioned by Pope John Paul II, entitled “The Hope of Salvation for Infants Who Die without Being Baptized.”[23]

 As a starting point, while it’s hard to remember as limited human beings, we have to keep in mind that God is not at all like us. The instinct when we see anthropomorphic language in Scripture is to latch onto it and to apply it as if we know God in the same way we would know another human, but that instinct must be avoided. When we speak of God’s “sovereignty” or God’s “purpose” or even God’s “will,” it’s no more literally true of God than saying that God has hands or feet. God as God does not operate in a human way in any sense; these are (poor) analogies that are nonetheless the best we can do.

You appeal to one of those analogies as follows:

The flaw in your argument is the failure to understand God’s “revealed will” as opposed to His “decretive will”. The result of this logic requires God to be subject to fate. Since God created everything, this obviously cannot be, as fate itself was created by God.

This is, I would submit, an anthropomorphism of what is otherwise a helpful analogy. Clasically, there is no distinction between God’s “revealed will” and God’s “decretive will.” That was an invention of the Reformation by analogy to human beings, and it is simply inapplicable to God; God only has a single, perfect will that cannot be divided. The Scholastic distinction, which instead draws distinctions with respect to God’s effects, is the appeal to God’s “permissive will,” and this distinction was rooted solely in the Biblical and philosophical fact that God cannot sin. As St. Thomas succinctly says, “God therefore neither wills evil to be done, nor wills it not to be done, but wills to permit evil to be done; and this is a good.” That does not create a (false) separation in the will of God; instead, it says something about the existence of created things (and in this case, evil in created things) relative to God’s eternal will.

So just as when we see Scriptures describing God’s hands and feet as not being literal, we have to do the same when God is described as actively or positively causing evil. God isn’t surprised by evil either, but He “plans around” it by willing good to come of it rather. To say that God positively wills evil goes beyond a “hard teaching” over to blasphemy, although I recognize that you would not intend it that way. We have to stop short at that point. So the idea that people without a rational will, i.e., infants are born evil is impossible, because that would be God positively willing, rather than permissively allowing a rational will to exercise, evil. That is why the Catholic Church also rejects the idea that original “sin” is guilt of fault.

Now this is usually the point at which people pipe up and say “what about Augustine?” As we all know, Augustine said that infants and other unbaptized people fall into what he called a massa damnata et damnabilis, a damned and damnable mass. This was what he suggested Paul had in mind when he said vessels of mercy and vessels of wrath were formed from the same “lump,” taking that analogy quite literally. How did he, who recognized that evil had only a negative existence and that God could not cause it, somehow miss this basic fact?

The reason is that Augustine held an odd (although not for his time) belief about human souls called traducianism. This viewed the soul as a kind of metaphysical substance that was passed on to children in generation in the same way genetic material might be understood today. So from Augustine’s perspective, it was possible for this common “soul stuff” to be tainted by its previous holder’s sin. Hence, it wasn’t God creating something evil; rather, it was this defective “soul stuff” that Adam had tainted by his sin that caused the infant to be part of the lump. Hence, Augustine took the analogy too far based on a philosophical belief; he saw the lump of clay as the lump of “soul stuff” out of which humans were formed. This belief was also responsible for some of Augustine’s unusual beliefs about the evils of sex, some of which were shared even by other traducian Fathers who did not hold Augustine’s beliefs about original sin.

Now that we’ve developed considerably in the philosophy of the soul and that we understand that the soul is specially created by God in each infant, we have a better understanding that Augustine did. Therefore, because we cannot appeal to this idea of “soul stuff” that Augustine did, we realize that we have to stop short in saying that original sin involves actual evil or that the negative predestination of certain souls to damnation lies in anything other than the person’s own fault. In other words, now we know that what goes for evil in general (God is the cause of everything, but He does not cause evil positively) applies to predestination in the same exact way (God predestines everything, but He does not positively predestine faults leading to damnation). Hence, when we read in Romans 9 that God created vessels of wrath or hardened hearts, we have to remember that we are not allowed to interpret this as God positively creating the evil in anything, including the will, as if he were a human, so we can’t take this as negative predestination.

Is that clear so far? If you can understand that basic philosophical principle, then we can turn to how to apply it in exegesis.

and from comments 427 & 428 http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2012/08/imputation-and-paradigms-a-reply-to-nicholas-batzig/


Bryan you wrote the following:
“presence of the supernatural gift of infused agape, which fulfills the law, immediately, by its very presence as a supernatural virtue in the soul. This is why Catholics have no doubt concerning the salvation of their baptized infants who die in infancy, even though they died having not done a single good work. At their baptism the Holy Spirit instantly poured out into their hearts (Rom 5:5) sanctifying grace and agape, which ipso facto, by its very presence, fulfilled the law, prior to any good work flowing from it. To have agape in one’s heart is to have the law written on one’s heart, and thus to be actually and truly righteous.”
So are you saying that a baby that has infused agape in the soul is treated as he has perfectly fulfilled the law even if he did not do a work of obedience? How is this not a legal fiction of sorts? Then infused agape is no different than extra-nos imputation, because both are treating the sinner as perfectly obeying the law when he did not.
answer from comment 428
So are you saying that a baby that has infused agape in the soul is treated as he has perfectly fulfilled the law even if he did not do a work of obedience? How is this not a legal fiction of sorts?
Because in the agape paradigm, love is the fulfillment of the law, as explained in the post and the comments above.
Then infused agape is no different than extra-nos imputation, because both are treating the sinner as perfectly obeying the law when he did not.
This objection just begs the question against the agape paradigm, by presupposing that agape is not the fulfillment of the law.

end of quote
And according to the Catechism of the Council of Trent (under the heading, “The Sacrament of Baptism”):
Bishops And Priests The Ordinary Ministers
The faithful, therefore, are to be informed that of those (who administer Baptism) there are three gradations. Bishops and priests hold the first place. To them belongs the administration of this Sacrament, not by any extraordinary concession of power, but by right of office; for to them, in the persons of the Apostles, was addressed the command of our Lord: Go, baptise. Bishops, it is true, in order not to neglect the more weighty charge of instructing the faithful, have generally left its administration to priests. But the authority of the Fathers and the usage of the Church prove that priests exercise this function by their own right, so much so that they may baptise even in the presence of the Bishop. Ordained to consecrate the Holy Eucharist, the Sacrament of peace and unity, it was fitting that they be invested with power to administer all those things which are required to enable others to participate in that peace and unity. If, therefore, the Fathers have at any time said that without the leave of the Bishop the priest has not the right to baptise, they are to be understood to speak of that Baptism only which was administered on certain days of the year with solemn ceremonies.
Deacons Extraordinary Ministers Of Baptism
Next among the ministers are deacons, for whom, as numerous decrees of the holy Fathers attest it is not lawful without the permission of the Bishop or priest to administer this Sacrament.
Ministers In Case Of Necessity
Those who may administer Baptism in case of necessity, but without its solemn ceremonies, hold the last place; and in this class are included all, even the laity, men and women, to whatever sect they may belong. This office extends in case of necessity, even to Jews, infidels and heretics, provided, however, they intend to do what the Catholic Church does in that act of her ministry. These things were established by many decrees of the ancient Fathers and Councils; and the holy Council of Trent denounces anathema against those who dare to say, that Baptism, even when administered by heretics, in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, with the intention of doing what the Church does, is not true Baptism.
And here indeed let us admire the supreme goodness and wisdom of our Lord. Seeing the necessity of this Sacrament for all, He not only instituted water, than which nothing can be more common, as its matter, but also placed its administration within the power of all. In its administration, however, as we have already observed, all are not allowed to use the solemn ceremonies; not that rites and ceremonies are of higher dignity, but because they are less necessary than the Sacrament.
Let not the faithful, however, imagine that this office is given promiscuously to all, so as to do away with the propriety of observing a certain precedence among those who are its ministers. When a man is present a woman should not baptise; an ecclesiastic takes precedence over a layman, and a priest over a simple ecclesiastic. Midwives, however, when accustomed to its administration, are not to be found fault with if sometimes, when a man is present who is unacquainted with the manner of its administration, they perform what may otherwise appear to belong more properly to men.
did Tertullian teach against it? an explanation: http://catholicdefense.blogspot.com/2014/10/does-tertullian-reject-infant-baptism.html  This is an excellent explanation of his belief---and this comment there is good:

Irenaeus supports it (" For He came to save all through means of Himself— all, I say, who through Him are born again to God — infants, and children, and boys, and youths, and old men.") and Cyprian as the objector you quote says, and even Clement of Alexandria "And let our seals be either a dove, or a fish, or a ship scudding before the wind, or a musical lyre, which Polycrates used, or a ship's anchor, which Seleucus got engraved as a device; and if there be one fishing, he will remember the apostle, and the children drawn out of the water.".

I think it's a stretch for him to push the controversy into the six century. In 417, Pope Innocent I in a doctrinal letter to the Fathers of the Synod of Milevis: “To preach that infants can be given the rewards of eternal life without the grace of baptism is completely idiotic. For unless thou eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, they will not have life in them."

Which affirms both paedobaptism and paedocommunion.

Another good article here:  http://www.catholicstand.com/catholic-church-right-infant-baptism/http://www.catholicstand.com/catholic-church-right-infant-baptism/

Sunday, August 12, 2012

Christ our Righteousness

Christ our righteousness
In the Catholic paradigm, sanctifying grace is a participation in the divine nature. But so is agape. Sanctifying grace inheres in the whole of the soul, whereas agape is the supernatural perfection of the will (which is one of the powers of the soul) by which the will is ordered above its natural end to the beatific vision. (Regarding the difference between sanctifying grace and agape, see Summa Theologica II-I Q.110 a.3-4.) But that difference does not mean that agape is not a participation in the divine nature; rather agape is a different mode of participation in the divine nature — that mode in which a created will gratuitously participates in the Good that God is as God is known to Himself. God is agape, says the Apostle John. And the agape infused into our hearts by the Holy Spirit is a participation in God. Hence the Catechism of the Catholic Church says:
Justification is at the same time the acceptance of God’s righteousness through faith in Jesus Christ. Righteousness (or “justice”) here means the rectitude of divine love. (CCC 1191)
By “rectitude of divine love,” the Catechism is referring to the righteousness had by the infusion of the supernatural gift of agape. My point is that “Christ our righteousness” does not entail extra nos imputation, because it can just as easily refer to the infusion of agape whereby we are partakers of and sharers in the God who is Agape. But Batzig’s argument ignores this paradigm.

'' Agape is the fulfillment of the law. So it is not true that in the agape paradigm God lowers His standard, from perfectly keeping every law, to something less, counting agape as if it is righteousness, even though the person is not actually truly righteous. That’s still thinking within the list-paradigm, and then trying to conceive the agape paradigm from within the list-paradigm. Agapewas the fulfillment of the law the whole time. Agape is what the law pointed to the whole time. Agapehas always been the perfect standard, what righteousness is. The law was the shadow. The law pointed to true righteousness, but was not itself that righteousness, because true righteousness is God Himself, and the law cannot without remainder (to say the least) contain God. So although the law points to true righteousness by way of precepts, the law is not the essence of true righteousness. Agapeis the true essence of righteousness. So to define agape in terms of the law is to define the real thing by way of its shadow. And that’s what the list-paradigm does.

So it is not the case that in the agape paradigm “God does not demand a perfect adherence to the law” or “God does not expect perfect adherence to the law.” Infused agape is the fulfillment of the law, because infused agape is a participation in the God who is our Righteousness. Likewise, it is not the case that in the agape paradigm “God looks on our faith and charity flowing from infused righteousness as the fulfillment of the two greatest commandments (love God and neighbor), even though we don’t always perfectly love our neighbors and God.” Agape is the perfect fulfillment of the law. You’re still trying to define righteousness by way of the law, rather than by way of that to which the law points. So you’re trying to conceive of the agape paradigm from within the list-paradigm. Theagape paradigm is a different paradigm altogether, not something that fits in the list-paradigm.''

'' When the Catechumen is baptized, he is given a white robe, representing the righteousness that he has received in baptism, by the infusion of sanctifying grace and faith, hope, and agape into his soul. The priest (or bishop) then says to him, “Receive this baptismal garment and bring it unstained to the judgment seat of our Lord Jesus Christ, so that you may have everlasting life.” What it means to bring it unstained to the judgment seat of Christ is never to commit a mortal sin for the rest of your life, i.e. never to drive from your soul the agape the Holy Spirit infused into you at baptism''
http://www.calledtocommunion.com/2012/08/imputation-and-paradigms-a-reply-to-nicholas-batzig/#comment-38204 from comment 343